Pre-Board Nursing Exam for May 2015 NLE [SATA]

ANSWER: Offer food or fluids as tolerated ; Use aspetic technique ; Use icebags for headaches or administer analgesics ; RATIONALE: The head of bed should be elevated at about 15-20 degrees and patient should be kept on bed rest for the next 24 hours only.

ANSWER: Avoid obesity ; Make sure to include foods rich in vitamin A and C in the diet ; Moderate consumption of salty foods should be encouraged ; RATIONALE: Total intake of fat should be cut down. Whole grain cereals should be increased in the diet to increase fiber intake. Alcoholic beverage intake should be moderated not avoided.

ANSWER: Students refuse to go back to school ; Students are apt to learn about the next lesson ; Students fantasize that the disaster never occur ; RATIONALE: Exhibiting behaviors of regression, having fantasies that nothing occurred and the inability to concentrate are the common behaviors after a disaster trauma.

ANSWER: Perimetry ; Tonometry ; Visual acuity ; Gonioscopy ; RATIONALE: Tonometry reading of 24-32 mmHg suggests glaucoma and may be 50 mmHg or more in acute (closed-angle) glaucoma. Perimetry reveals defects in visual fields. Visual acuity is reduced in glaucoma and gonioscopy examines the angle of anterior chamber.

ANSWER: Increased automatisms ; Selectively attentive ; Diaphoresis ; Increased rate of speech ; RATIONALE: Moderate anxiety clinical manifestations: • Selectively attentive • Perceptual field limited to the immediate task • Can be redirected • Cannot connect thoughts or events independently • Muscle tension • Diaphoresis • Pounding pulse • Headache • Dry mouth • Higher voice pitch • Increased rate of speech • GI upset • Frequent urination • Increased automatisms (nervous mannerisms)

ANSWER: Gestalt therapy ; Reality therapy ; Rational emotive therapy ; Cognitive therapy ; RATIONALE: Existential therapies include: cognitive therapy, rational emotive therapy, logotherapy, gestalt, and reality therapy.

ANSWER: Alcohol ; Obesity ; Contraceptive pills ; Exercise ; Diabetes mellitus ; RATIONALE: Modifiable risk factors include: • Alcohol • Obesity • Contraceptive pills • Exercise • Diabetes mellitus • Diet • Stress • Cigarette smoking • Hypertension • Hyperlipidemia • Personality type

ANSWER: 24-month old Roger ; Lady Mabelle who is a toddler ; A preschooler kid named Argel ; 36 months old Dina ; RATIONALE: Preoperational thought stage of Piaget’s cognitive development is from 2 years old to 7 years of age.

ANSWER: Cleanse the stoma and tracheostomy at regular basis ; Change dressings and ties as necessary ; RATIONALE: To prevent infection the nurse must practice cleansing the stoma and tracheostomy ate regular basis and change the ties and dressings as needed.

ANSWER: Transmitted by droplet infection ; It is an infectious disease ; Anti-Tb drugs must be taken in combination ; RATIONALE: The effectiveness of anti-Tb drugs is evaluated by sputum culture for acid fast bacilli. Drugs should be taken on an empty stomach for a better absorption.

ANSWER: Better able to juggle their various lives as a mother, office worker and group chairperson ; Participate in far-reaching community decisions ; Happily accepts a late-in-life pregnancy ; RATIONALE: The developmental task of middle age is to establish a sense of generativity versus stagnation. People extend their concern from just themselves and their families to the community and world. They become politically active, are self-confident and can juggle their various lives/roles as a mother, office worker and group chairperson. Women without a sense of generativity may have more difficulty than others accepting a late-in-life pregnancy and a new role of childbearing and childrearing.

ANSWER: All behavior is learned. ; Behavior that is rewarded with reinforces tends to recur. ; Negative reinforcers that are removed after a behavior increase the likelihood that the behavior will recur. ; Consequences results from behavior. ; RATIONALE: The following principles of operant conditioning described by Skinner form the basis for behavior techniques today: • All behavior is learned. • Random intermittent reinforcement is slower to produce an increase in behavior. • Behavior that is rewarded with reinforces tends to recur. • Negative reinforcers that are removed after a behavior increase the likelihood that the behavior will recur. • Continuous reinforcement will not last long after the reward ceases. • Consequences results from behavior.

ANSWER: Trauma ; Ultraviolet rays ; X-rays ; RATIONALE: Majority (over 80%) of human cancers related to environmental carcinogens. The types of environmental carcinogens are: Physical • Radiation: x-rays, radium, nuclear explosion or waste, UV • Trauma or chronic irritation Chemical • Nitrites and food additives, alkylating agents • Drugs: arsenicals, stilbesterol • Cigarrete smoke • Hormones

ANSWER: Explaining pre and post-op procedures and any special equipment to be used. ; Assuring patient that pain medications will be available post-op. ; Reinforcing explanations given by physicians. ; RATIONALE: Preoperative health teachings include those listed in 1, 2 and 3. Activities listed in numbers 4, 5 and 6 are applicable during the post-operative period.

ANSWER: Petrolatum gauze ; Suture removal kit ; Scissors ; Sterile gauze ; RATIONALE: Removal of chest tube is done by the physician. It is the nurse’s responsibility to prepare the following items: • Petrolatum gauze • Suture removal kit • Adhesive tape • Sterile gauze

ANSWER: Do not chew on the affected side ; After the removal for packing, the client should not blow his or her nose for 2 weeks ; Caution client with oral hygiene to prevent trauma of incision ; RATIONALE: Dentures should not be worn for at least 10 days. Clearing of throat should be avoided after a tonsillectomy not Caldwell-Luc Surgery.

ANSWER: Loss of the sense of smell ; Inability to whistle ; Inability to gargle ; RATIONALE: After laryngectomy a permanent tracheostomy is placed. Loss of voice is also noted together with the effects listed in 1, 2 and 5.

ANSWER: Alteration in bowel elimination (constipation or continence) ; Self-care deficit ; Impaired verbal communication ; Altered tissue perfusion (cerebral) ; RATIONALE: Skin integrity impairment in patients with nervous system disorder is related to immobility (not increased mobilization) or sensory deficits. Potential alteration in nutrition: less than body requirements is also noted.

ANSWER: Orthopnea ; Edema ; Syncope ; RATIONALE: Clinical manifestations listed in 4-7 are the common side effects of radiation therapy.

ANSWER: Tidal volume ; Inspiratory reserve volume ; Residual volume ; Vital capacity ; RATIONALE: Functional residual capacity is a component of pulmonary studies not functional reserve volume.

ANSWER: The spermatozoa are examined within 1 hour after ejaculation ; The analysis may need to be repeated after 2-3 months ; The man masturbates into a clean, dry specimen jar with a secure lid ; Collect the specimen as close as possible to the client’s usual schedule of sexual activity ; RATIONALE: For a semen analysis, after 2-4 days of sexual abstinence, the man ejaculates by masturbation into a clean dry container with a secure lid. Lubricant use should be avoided when collecting the specimen and it should be kept at body temperature while transporting for analysis.

ANSWER: Safety precautions are necessary only during the time the client is actually receiving irradiation. ; Inform the client that the procedure is painless ; Remind the client that the machine may move during the therapy and the procedure usually lasts for a few minutes ; RATIONALE: Avoiding overexposure to sunlight is a way to prevent cancer. Guidelines in 3 and 6 are ways to handle chemotherapeutic agents safely.

ANSWER: Oculomotor ; Trochlear ; Abducens ; RATIONALE: The oculomotor nerve supplies motor fibers to four of the six muscles that direct the eyeball to the eyelid. Trochlear cranial nerve supplies motor fibers for one external eye muscle. Abducens supplies motor nerve fibers to the lateral rectus muscle which rolls the eye laterally.

ANSWER: Wear a loose rubber glove when washing dishes ; Apply lanolin hand cream to prevent dryness ; Use a thimble when sewing ; RATIONALE: Don’ts after a simple mastectomy: (on the affected side) • Carry purse/ anything heavy • Wear wristwatch/ jewelry • Pick at/ cut cuticles • Work near thorny plant or dig in garden • Reach into a hot oven • Hold a cigarette • Injections, withdrawal of blood, BP-taking

ANSWER: To assess ventilation ; Assess acid-base balance ; RATIONALE: Blood pressure in the vessels is obtained using a sphygmomanometer. Perfusion of blood in the lungs is measured in lung scan. Assessing the adequacy of collateral circulation of the hand is done through Allen’s test.

ANSWER: Avoid use of medicated solutions, ointments or powders ; Use cornstarch or olive oil. ; Use bed cradle. ; RATIONALE: Clients should avoid use of medicated solutions, ointments or powders that contain heavy metals such as zinc oxide. Cornstarch or olive oil can be used for itching. Talcum powder should never be used. To prevent pressure, trauma and infection to skin bed cradle should be used.

ANSWER: Quit smoking ; Chest X-ray once a year ; RATIONALE: Prevention of lung cancer would include quitting on smoking and having a chest x-ray once a year.

ANSWER: Secure consent ; Position the client upright leaning on overbed table ; Instruct the client to remain still ; RATIONALE: Obtaining initial VS is done pre-procedure while monitoring VS is done post-procedure. Bed rest until Vs are stable is applicable post-op.

ANSWER: Treat sleep problems ; Treat intrusive daytime thoughts ; Relieves the client from nightmares when sleeping ; RATIONALE: MAOIs are used to treat sleep problems, nightmares and intrusive daytime thought in individuals with posttraumatic disorder. MAOIs inhibitors are not used to help control flashbacks or phobias or to decrease the craving for alcohol.

ANSWER: Inotropin ; Dobutrex ; Digitalis preparations ; Levophed ; RATIONALE: Drugs used to treat shock: • Dopamine (Inotropin) – stimulates myocardial contractility; increases urine output • Dobutamine (Dobutrex) – similar to dopamine • Digitalis preparations – improve cardiac performances • Norepinephrine (Levophed) – symphatomimetic; produces vasoconstriction in all vascular beds and improves cardiac contractility.

ANSWER: Malignant hypertension ; CHF ; RATIONALE: Albuminuria is detected in clients with malignant hypertension and CHF.

ANSWER: Fever ; Chills ; Adrenal failure ; Nephrotoxicity ; RATIONALE: Amphotericin B toxic signs and symptoms include: • Fever • Chills • Adrenal failure • Nephrotoxicity • Anorexia • Headache

ANSWER: 5-Fluorouracil ; Methotrexate ; RATIONALE: Antimetabolites include: • Methitrexate • 5-Fluorouracil • ARA-C Mercaptopurine Thioguanine

ANSWER: Ciliary body ; Choroid ; Iris ; RATIONALE: Choroid is a highly vascular layer that nourishes the retina. The ciliary body secretes the aqueous humor and the iris is the pigmented membrane behind the cornea giving color to the eye.

ANSWER: General malaise ; Headache ; Pain in and around the eyes ; RATIONALE: In maxillary sinusitis there is pain in the cheek and upper teeth. Sore throat, earache and snoring are clinical manifestations of tonsillitis.

ANSWER: Include husband in the care as possible. ; Teach arm exercises ; Inform about wound suction drainage ; RATIONALE: Psychosocial support is promoted when the husband is included in the care as necessary. Arm exercises are taught during the preop period to prevent lymphedema.

ANSWER: Sputum ; Chest X-ray ; Temperature ; RATIONALE: In pneumonia the nurse should monitor for the client’s sputum, chest x-ray and temperature.

ANSWER: Pressure on nerve endings ; Lack of O2 to tissues and organs ; Release of pain mediators by the tumor ; Distention of vessels or organs ; RATIONALE: Proliferation of Ca cells produces pain as a result of: • Pressure on nerve endings • Lack of O2 to tissues and organs • Release of pain mediators by the tumor • Distention of vessels or organs

ANSWER: Cuts ; Scratches ; Pinpricks ; Hangnails ; Insect bites ; Burns ; RATIONALE: To prevent lymphedema the client should avoid the following: • Cuts • Scratches • Pinpricks • Hangnails • Insect bites • Burns • Strong detergents

ANSWER: Position the client in high-fowler’s ; O2 therapy ; Monitor for shock ; RATIONALE: CVP line insertion should never be performed as it causes pleural effusion.

ANSWER: Increase calorie ; Increase protein in the diet ; Decrease carbohydrate ; RATIONALE: High caloric diet provides source of energy. High protein diet helps maintain integrity of alveolar walls. Low carbohydrate diet limit carbon dioxide production (natural end product) since the client has difficulty exhaling carbon.

ANSWER: Recording the intake and output of a manic client ; Accompanying a depressed client to occupational therapy ; RATIONALE: Non-nuring activities, such as those listed in 2 and 5 are safe to be delagted to the UAP as long as there has been prior education.

ANSWER: Has the client shown signs of progress? ; How well is the patient progressing? ; How serious are the present signs and symptoms? ; RATIONALE: Current health status: How well is the patient progressing? How serious are the present signs and symptoms? Has the patient shown signs of progressing as expected, or does it seem that recovery will be delayed?

ANSWER: Smoking ; Taking ASA with Coumadin ; Constipation ; Contact sports ; RATIONALE: Patient teaching in Pulmonary Embolism – DON’T’s: • Smoking • Taking ASA with Coumadin • Constipation • Contact sports • Restrictive clothing on legs • Prolonged sitting or standing

ANSWER: Thoracic surgery ; Positive pressure ventilation ; CVP line insertion ; Emphysema ; RATIONALE: Causes of pleural effusion and pneumothorax: 1. Thoracic surgery 2. Positive pressure ventilation 3. CVP line insertion 4. Emphysema 5. Thoracentesis 6. Trauma

ANSWER: Localized pain ; Localized edema ; Increased WBCs ; Increased neutrophils ; Increased body temperature ; RATIONALE: Localized pain is due to swelling of inflamed tissue resulting to increase pressure on nerve endings. Localized edema occurs as fluid, protein and cells enter the interstitial spaces. WBC level is elevated as the body’s response to infection. Specialized WBCs, neutrophils and monocytes, ingest and destroy microorganism through phagocytosis. Fever is caused by phagocytic release of pyrogen from bacterial cells that cause a rise in hypothalamic set point.

ANSWER: Floaters ; Halos around lights ; Flashes of light ; RATIONALE: A tunnel vision, impairment of peripheral vision (tunnel vision) and severe eye pain are NOT experienced by clients with retinal detachment but those with glaucoma.

ANSWER: Dyspnea ; Increase sputum production ; Rales ; Cough ; RATIONALE: • Dyspnea – due to hypertrophy of mucous membrane • Fever – protective mechanism of the body with infection • Increase WBC – protective mechanism of the body with infection • Increase sputum production – due to hypertrophy of mucous membrane • Rales – due to hypertrophy of mucous membrane • Hypoxemia – due to increased capillary permeability • Cough – due to hypertrophy of mucous membrane

ANSWER: Characterized by the presence of an aura preceding the pain ; Severe throbbing pain often in the temporal or supraorbital area ; Nausea and vomiting ; Pallor ; RATIONALE: Clinical manifestations listed in 2, 3, 4 and 6 are experienced by patients with migraine headaches.

ANSWER: Weakness ; Anemia ; Weight loss ; RATIONALE: Late signs of bronchogenic cancer include weakness, weight loss, anorexia and anemia.

ANSWER: Throat discomfort ; Black or dark stool ; RATIONALE: After tonsillectomy throat discomfort between 4th and 8th post op day is expected due to sloughing off of mucous membrane at the operative site. The stool is black or dark for a few days due to swallowed blood during the procedure.

ANSWER: Persistent cough ; Frank hemoptysis ; Chest, shoulder and arm pain ; Any change in respiratory pattern ; RATIONALE: Warning signs of lung cancer: • Persistent cough • Frank hemoptysis • Sputum streaked with blood • Rust colored or purulent sputum • Chest, shoulder and arm pain • Recurring episodes of bronchitis, pneumonia and pleural effusion • Any change in respiratory pattern • Dyspnea, unexplained or out of proportion

ANSWER: Meal time ; Position of the mother ; Hydration status of the mother ; Time of the day ; RATIONALE: Generally, at least three fetal movements in one hour are considered normal. Procedure varies with time of the day, reference to mealtime, maternal position and hydration. Often a baby is more active after a meal.

ANSWER: CPT ; Administer Morphine if client is on Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) ; RATIONALE: If client is on PEEP Morphine/Ativan/Diprivan is administered to reduce resistance to PEEP. CPT is done for adults with ARDS and O2 therapy is regulated to flow of about 8-10 LPM.

ANSWER: Excises lesions ; Removing foreign objects ; RATIONALE: Items in 1, 4 and 5 are diagnostic purposes of bronchoscopy.

ANSWER: Bleomycin (Blenoxane) ; Doxorudicin (Adriamycin) ; RATIONALE: Medications listed in 1, 2 and 4 are antimebolites.

ANSWER: Done usually 2-3 days before the expected menstrual flow ; The procedure is contraindicated if pregnancy is suspected ; Uterine perforation is expected to occur post-procedure ; A small amount of vaginal spotting is normal after the procedure ; RATIONALE: There may be a moment of sharp pain as the biopsy specimen is taken from the anterior or posterior uterine wall. Mild to moderate discomfort is felt by the woman as thin probe and biopsy forceps are introduced into the cervix. If an infection such as PID or cervicitis is present this procedure should never be performed.

ANSWER: Firm skin turgor ; Moist mucous membranes ; Urine output of at least 30 ml/hour ; RATIONALE: Because of the criteria in the question, FLUID RESUSCITATION, the diagnosis for diarrhea in this case is narrowed to Deficient Fluid Volume related to excessive fluid loss in stool. Thus, fluid resuscitation is needed and expected outcomes of successful intervention include: • Firm skin turgor • Moist mucous membranes • Urine output of at least 30 ml/hr The client also has a nursing diagnosis of diarrhea with the following expected outcomes: • Passage of formed stools at regular intervals • Decrease in stool frequency and liquidity

ANSWER: Excessive laxative use ; Ignoring the urge to defecate when it occurs ; Discomfort with defecation ; Increased fluid intake ; RATIONALE: Chronic use of laxatives causes the large intestine to lose muscle tone and becomes less responsive to stimulation by laxatives. Anything that prevents a person from responding to the urge to defecate and disrupts regular habits can cause possible alterations such as constipation. Reduced fluid intake slows the passage of food through the intestine and can result in hardening of stool contents.

ANSWER: Infiltration ; Pyrogenic reaction ; Circulatory overload ; RATIONALE: Complications of IV therapy includes: • Infiltration • Phlebitis • Pyrogenic reaction • Air embolism • Circulatory overload

ANSWER: Sit with support ; Use palmar grasp ; May say vowel sounds (oh-oh) ; RATIONALE: A 6-month old baby can do the following: • Turn both ways • Moro reflex fading • Uses palmar grasp • May say vowel words (oh-oh) • Enjoy bathtub toys and rubber ring for teeth • Starts to sit without support

ANSWER: Adjusting to reduced income ; Viewing own death as an appropriate outcome of life ; Keeping socially active ; Adjusting to death of spouse ; Successfully adjusting to retirement ; RATIONALE: Other elderly developmental tasks: • Adjusting to reduced income • Viewing own death as an appropriate outcome of life • Keeping socially active • Establishing independence to ADLs • Adjusting to death of spouse • Successfully adjusting to retirement • Making satisfactory living arrangements

ANSWER: Check the soiled linen for personal items such as eyeglasses ; Ensure that the temperature of the bath water is 110-115 degree Fahrenheit ; Shave the client in the direction of the hair growth ; RATIONALE: Rubbing alcohol is drying and may cause skin breakdown. Washing extremities distal to proximal stimulates venous return.

ANSWER: Rinse mouth with plain water before collecting the specimen ; A sterile water should be used in rinsing the mouth ; Sputum specimen for C and s is collected before the first dose of antimicrobial ; RATIONALE: The sputum should be collected early in the morning. If the sputum collected is for AFB staining, the specimen should be collected for 3 NOT 5 consecutive mornings.

ANSWER: Partial thromboplastin time ; Prothrombin time ; RATIONALE: • Partial thromboplastin time – blood coagulation test • Serum sodium – serum electrolytes • Lactic dehydrogenase – enzyme studies • Prothrombin time – blood coagulation test • Aspartate Aminotransferase – enzyme studies

ANSWER: It is the most specific cardiac enzyme ; Normal range in males is 50-325 mu/ml ; It is an accurate indicator of myocardial damage ; RATIONALE: • It is the most specific cardiac enzyme – CK-MB • Elevated level indicates tissue necrosis – aspartate aminotransferase • It is the most sensitive indicator of myocardial damage – lactic dehydrogenase • Normal range in males is 50-325 mu/ml – CK- MB • It is an accurate indicator of myocardial damage – CK-MB

ANSWER: Side-lying position ; Instruct the client to cough and deeply breath ; RATIONALE: The client is on NPO after bronchography until cough and gag reflexes return. Interventions listed in 2, 3 5 and 6 are appropriate before bronchogram.

ANSWER: Have the client void ; Assess for allergy to iodine/seafoods ; RATIONALE: • Have the client void – before procedure • Assess for allergy to iodine/seafoods – before procedure • Apply pressure dressing and a small ice bag or ice over the punctured area – to prevent bleeding (after procedure) • Immobilize affected extremity – to promote adequate circulation (after) • Elevate HOB to 30-45 degrees – do not elevate HOB to more than 30 degrees if the femoral site was used (after) • Monitor ECG – note for dysrhythmias (after)

ANSWER: COPD ; Guillain-Barre syndrome ; Barbiturate or sedative overdose ; Weakness of respiratory muscles ; RATIONALE: Respiratory Acidosis, a primary excess of carbonic acid in the extracellular fluid leading to decreased in pH, elevated pCO2 and bicarbonate (if renal compensation is present), may be caused by: • COPD • Barbiturate or sedative overdose • Acute airway obstruction • Weakness of respiratory muscles • Guillain-Barre syndrome

ANSWER: Explain to the client the need to remain still. ; Have the patient empty his or her bladder ; RATIONALE: Nursing care listed in 1, 2 and 4 are applicable after lumbar puncture is done.

ANSWER: Suction as needed. ; Place patient in a side-lying position. ; Check respiratory rate, depth and quality every 1-2 hours and as needed. ; Auscultate breath sounds for rales, rhonchi or absent breath sounds every 4 hours and before and after suctioning. ; RATIONALE: Interventions listed in 2 and 4 are important in providing client safety but is not essential in maintaining a clear and patent airway.

ANSWER: Each person’s expression of pain may be different and individualized ; Pain level and tolerance can be assessed from a scale of 1 to 10 ; The client needs to be reassured that the nurse believes about his statement of pain ; RATIONALE: Each person’s expression of pain may be different. In expressing the pain, the client needs to know that the nurse believes what they are saying. Pain level and pain tolerance can be assessed using a scale of 1-10.

ANSWER: More porous bones ; Stooped posture ; Atrophy of muscles ; RATIONALE: Musculoskeletal system changes due to aging are the following: • Atrophy of muscles with decreased strength, endurance and agility • Bones more porous and lighter through calcium loss • Enlarged stiff joints • Stooped posture

ANSWER: Lobectomy ; Thoracoplasty ; Decortication ; RATIONALE: Chemotherapy and radiation treatment are management for cancer but do not involve surgery.

ANSWER: Change in wart or mole ; Nagging cough or hoarseness ; Lump in breast or elsewhere ; RATIONALE: Warning signs of cancer: • Change in bowel or bladder habits • Sore that doesn’t heal • Lump in breast or elsewhere • Unusual bleeding or discharge • Indigestion or dysphagia • Change in wart or mole • Nagging cough or hoarseness

ANSWER: Pneumonia ; Urinary calculi ; Thrombi ; Contractures of extremities ; Pressure ulcers ; RATIONALE: Urinary calculi due to stasis or urine, contractures of extremities because of the disuse of the muscles and joints, pneumonia due to pulmonary stasis, pressure ulcers due to increased pressure on bony prominences and thrombi due to venous stasis are all possible complications of bed rest.

ANSWER: Deep breathing and coughing exercises ; Ambulate within limits ; RATIONALE: Valsalva maneuver is encouraged if the chest tube is to be removed. The client should be turning to sides at a regular basis to promote drainage.

ANSWER: Monitor VS and perform neuro checks frequently. ; Assist with mechanical ventilation as indicated. ; Avoid restrain use ; Administer antiemetics as prescribed ; RATIONALE: The interventions listed in 2, 3 5 and 6 are essential in the nursing management of increased ICP. Fluid balance should be maintained by restricting 1200-1500 ml/day of fluids. The ehad of bed should be elevated to 35-45 degrees and neck should be in a neutral position to improve venous drainage from brain.

ANSWER: Patient is oriented to time date and place ; Pupils constrict in response to light ; The patient blinks when the cornea is lightly stroked ; RATIONALE: Decorticate posture may suggest damage to corticospinal tracts and a GCS score of only 5 from a scale of 15 needs further evaluation.

ANSWER: Placing an ice collar on the patient’s neck ; Administration of acetaminophen ; RATIONALE: Placing an ice collar and administering acetaminophen promotes client comfort.

ANSWER: Instructing the client to follow a bland diet regimen ; Saline rinses every 2 hours ; Giving the client sugarless lemon drops ; RATIONALE: Stomatitis is the ulceration of oral mucous membrane which is managed by performing the following: • Administer analgesics before meals • Bland diet/no smoking/alcohol • Saline rinses every 2 hours/ good oral hygiene • Sugarless lemon drops/mint to increase salivation

ANSWER: Gender ; Health ; Temperament ; Intelligence ; On average girls are born lighter and shorter than boys. A child who inherits a genetically transmitted disease may not grow as rapidly or develop fully as a healthy child, depending on the type of illness and the therapy or care available for the disease. Children with high intelligence do not generally grow faster than other children, but they do tend to advance faster in skills. Temperament is an inborn characteristic set at birth.

ANSWER: Candles and matches ; One change of clothing and protective footwear ; Sanitation supplies ; RATIONALE: All items except the passport or birth certificate and computer components should be listed as needed in case of a disaster.

ANSWER: Epigastric pain ; Headache ; Blurred vision ; Severe nausea and vomiting ; RATIONALE: Signs of mild preeclampsia includes epigastric pain, headache, blurred vision and severe nausea and vomiting.

ANSWER: Frequently checking every hour for signs of tissue damage ; Turning the client every 2 hours ; RATIONALE: Nursing care listed in 3 and 4 can prevent skin breakdown to patients with hyperthermia.

ANSWER: Pulmonary embolism ; Sepsis ; Myocardial infarction ; Drug reactions ; RATIONALE: Most common causes of shock during the post-op period include: • Hemorrhage • Sepsis • MI and cardiac arrest • Drug reactions • Transfusion reactions • Pulmonary embolism • Adrenal failure

ANSWER: Aminophylline (Theophyline) ; Alupent (Metaproterenol) ; Bricanyl (terbutaline) ; RATIONALE: 1. Aminophylline (Theophyline) – bronchodilator 2. Dextrometorphan – antitussives 3. Benadryl (diphenhydramine) – antihistamine 4. Alupent (Metaproterenol) – bronchodilator 5. Bricanyl (terbutaline) – bronchodilator

ANSWER: Tachycardia ; Arrhythmias ; Dyspnea ; RATIONALE: After bronchoscopy, the nurse should watch out for cyanosis, hypotension, tachycardia, arrhythmias, hemoptysis and dyspnea. These signs and symptoms indicate performation of the bronchial tree.

ANSWER: Oropharyngeal suctioning ; Aerosol inhalation ; Steam inhalation ; RATIONALE: Bronchial hygiene measures are: • Suctioning • Steam inhalation • Aerosol inhalation • Medimist inhalation

ANSWER: Cyanosis ; Tachycardia ; Unconsciousness ; Rise in venous pressure ; RATIONALE: In air embolism the expected clinical manifestations are cyanosis, hypotension, tachycardia, rise in venous pressure and unconsciousness.

ANSWER: Document restraint checks and patient status every two hours ; Educate the client’s family about restraint use ; Provide 10 minutes of release and repositioning ; RATIONALE: Restrain standards states that documentation must occur at least every two hours. It is important for the family to understand the purpose of restraint. Standard states that restraint orders are to be renewed ever 24 hours when a restraint is used continuously. Release and positioning should be provided for a minimum of 10 minutes at least every two hours.

ANSWER: Alcohol abuse ; A positive family history ; Environmental pollutants ; RATIONALE: Predisposing factors of laryngitis: • Cigarette smoking • Alcohol abuse • Voice abuse • Environmental pollutants • Chronic laryngitis • (+) family history

ANSWER: Body malaise ; Fatigue ; Anorexia ; Weight loss ; RATIONALE: The given items are all noted in COPD but decreased metabolism in COPD is characterized by signs and symptoms listed in 1, 4, 5 and 7.

ANSWER: Lobectomy ; Segmentectomy ; Wedge resection ; Decortication ; Thoracoplasty ; RATIONALE: Placement of chest tube and placing the client in a semi-fowler’s position or on the unaffected side to allow expansion of the affected lung is done postoperatively in the procedures listed in 2-6. Fully side-lying position is avoided after pneumonectomy to prevent mediastinal shift. In general, no chest tube is placed after this procedure.

ANSWER: Nausea and vomiting ; Red orange color to body secretions ; Thrombocytopenia ; Hepatoxicity ; RATIONALE: Side effects of Rifampicin: red orange color to body secretions, hepatoxicity, nausea and vomiting and thrombocytopenia.

ANSWER: Atelectasis ; Pneumonia ; RATIONALE: Common post-op complications of respiratory tract are atelectasis and pneumonia. Pulmonary embolism is a cardiovascular system post-op complication.

ANSWER: Decrease LOC ; Rise in systolic pressure ; Abnormal respiratory patterns ; RATIONALE: Sunken fontanels and a high-pitched cry are noted if the patient is an infant.

ANSWER: Neurectomy ; Chordotomy ; Rhizotomy ; Sympathectomy ; RATIONALE: Neurosurgical procedures for pain control involves surgical destruction of nerve pathways to block transmission of pain which includes neurectomy, rhizotomy, chordotomy and sympathectomy.

ANSWER: Making sure to straighten the ear canal for adults and children ; Assisting the client to a sitting position or lying position with the head tilted to the affected area ; Instructing the patient to lie on the affected side after the procedure ; RATIONALE: The auricle is pulled upward and backward in children not the ear canal. Returning fluids are allowed to drain in a collecting basin.

ANSWER: TPN administration ; Antibiotic therapy ; Chemotherapy ; IV therapy ; RATIONALE: Central lines are used for TPN administration, CVP measurement, IV therapy when suitable peripheral veins are not available, long-term antibiotic therapy and chemotherapy.