Nursing Practice Test II – Set A
by Admin · April 18, 2009
The scope of this Nursing Practice Test II is parallel to the Nursing Board Exam Coverage:
- Maternal and Child Health
- Community Health Nursing
- Communicable Diseases
- Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
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Nursing Practice II - Set A
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Question 1 |
Before a client leaves the hospital after a mastectomy, it is most important that nurse Maureen teach her to:
A | Apply breast prosthesis |
B | Curtail some of her usual activities |
C | Avoid household tasks that require stretching |
D | Regularly examine her remaining breast for abnormalities |
Question 1 Explanation:
A clients who have cancer of one breast are at risk for development of cancer in the other breast.
Question 2 |
Nurse Oliver is aware that an anticoagulant drug that a pregnant client with Thrombophlebitis can safely receive is:
A | Dicumarol |
B | Anisindione |
C | Heparin sodium |
D | Warfarin sodium |
Question 2 Explanation:
Heparin can be used during pregnancy because it does not cross the placental barrier and will not cause hemorrhage.
Question 3 |
The Polio vaccine is given orally, by drops for which reason?
A | It is a project of Rotary international |
B | It is only a one dose vaccine |
C | It is prepared in liquid form |
D | Infant is just six weeks old |
Question 3 Explanation:
All the immunizing agents are in liquid form except BCG and measles which are in powder form.
Question 4 |
A client at 10 week’s gestation hones the prenatal clinic to report that she has been experiencing some vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping. Nurse Marilyn arranges for her to go to the local hospital. The vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is 2 cm dilated. The nurse concludes that the client is having:
A | A septic abortion |
B | A threatened abortion |
C | An inevitable abortion |
D | An incomplete abortion |
Question 4 Explanation:
Once cervical dilation has begun, the abortion is classified as inevitable.
Question 5 |
A mother calls the clinic to report that her 9-month-old infant has diarrhea. Upon further questioning, nurse Jamie determines that the child has mild diarrhea and no signs of dehydration. Which advice is most appropriate to give this mother?
A | Call back if your baby has 10 stools in 1 day. |
B | Feed your baby clear liquids only. |
C | Continue your baby's normal feedings |
D | Notify your baby's day care of his illness. |
Question 5 Explanation:
If an infant has mild diarrhea, his mother should be advised to continue his normal diet and to call back if the diarrhea doesn't stop or if he shows signs of dehydration. Notifying the day care about the infant's illness is important but doesn't take priority.
Question 6 |
Nurse Trinity is aware that an ABO incompatibility is most common when the mother is:
A | Type A |
B | Type B |
C | Type O |
D | Type AB |
Question 6 Explanation:
Mother’s with type O blood have anti-A and anti-b antibodies that are transferred across the placenta; this is the most common incompatability because the mother is type O in 20% of all pregnancies.
Question 7 |
While Susan is being prepared for surgery because of ruptured tubal pregnancy, she complains of feeling light-headed. Her pulse is very rapid, and her color is pale. The nurse assesses that the client may be:
A | Hyperventilating |
B | Going into shock |
C | Extremely anxious |
D | Developing an infection |
Question 7 Explanation:
Hemorrhage can result from a ruptured tubal pregnancy and shock can ensue.
Question 8 |
Marian with a large fetus is to have a pudendal block during the second stage of labor. The nurse plans to instruct the client that once the block is working she:
A | May loose bladder sensation |
B | Will not feel an episiotomy |
C | May lose the ability to push |
D | Will no longer feel contraction |
Question 8 Explanation:
A pudendal block provides anesthesia to the perineum.
Question 9 |
Jay, an 8-month-old is admitted to the pediatric unit following a fall from his high chair. The child is awake, alert, and crying. The nurse should know that a brain injury is more severe in children because of:
A | increased myelination. |
B | intracranial hypotension. |
C | cerebral hyperemia. |
D | a slightly thicker cranium. |
Question 9 Explanation:
Cerebral hyperemia (excess blood in the brain) causes an initial increase in intracranial pressure in the head of an injured child. The brain is less myelinated in a child and more easily injured than an adult brain. Intracranial hypertension — not hypotension — places the child at greater risk for secondary brain injury. A child's cranium is thinner and more pliable, causing the child to receive a more severe injury.
Question 10 |
Nurse Leng in the women’s health clinic recognizes that a client who complains of swelling of the labia and throbbing pain in the labial area after sexual intercourse should be treated for:
A | Urethritis |
B | Bartholinitis |
C | Vaginal hematoma |
D | Inflamed Skene’s glands |
Question 10 Explanation:
The bartolin glands are located beneath the vaginal vestibule; if cysts form and they become infected they cause labial, vaginal, or pelvic pain particularly during or after intercourse (dyspareunia).
Question 11 |
May at 12 week’s gestation expels the products of conception. Since the client’s blood type is Rh negative, the nurse should:
A | Administer RhoGAM immediately after delivery |
B | Administer RhoGAM within 72 hours after delivery |
C | Not giv RhoGAM because the gestation was only 12 weeks. |
D | Not give RhoGAM because it s not used when the fetus is dead. |
Question 11 Explanation:
RhoGAM should be given within 72 hours after delivery to have an impact on future pregnancies.
Question 12 |
What is a normal systolic blood pressure for Jun-jun a 3-year-old child?
A | 100 mm Hg |
B | 86 mm Hg |
C | 120 mm Hg |
D | 60 mm Hg |
Question 12 Explanation:
Using the formula systolic blood pressure = 80 + (age in years × 2), the estimated blood pressure for a 3-year-old child is 80 + (3 × 2) = 86.
Question 13 |
If measles is given at nine months, what is the percentage that measles can be prevented?
A | 75% |
B | 85% |
C | 95% |
D | 100% |
Question 13 Explanation:
When measles is given to 9 months, it provides 85% protection. When given at 1 year, it provides 95% protection.
Question 14 |
DOH data on seropositive cases of HIV pint out that majority of all who tested positive were:
A | Commercial sex workers from 17 to 34 years old |
B | Males from 19 to 49 years old |
C | Females from 25 to 46 years old |
D | None of these is accurate |
Question 14 Explanation:
DOH data on seropositive cases of HIV point out that 85 percent who tested positive were males from 19 to 49 years old.
Question 15 |
When caring for children who are sick, who have sustained traumas, or who are suffering from nutritional inadequacies, nurse Marvin should know the correct hemoglobin (Hb) values for children. Which of the following ranges would be inaccurate?
A | Neonates: 10.6 to 16.5 g/dl |
B | 3 months: 10.6 to 16.5 g/dl |
C | 3 years: 9.4 to 15.5 g/dl |
D | 10 years: 10.7 to 15.5 g/dl |
Question 15 Explanation:
To sustain them until active erythropoiesis begins, neonates have Hb concentrations higher than those of older children. The normal value of Hb for neonates is 18 to 27 g/dl. Disease as well as such nonpathologic conditions as age, sex, altitude, and the degree of fluid retention or dehydration can affect Hb values. The values for a 3-month-old, a 3-year-old, and a 10-year-old are correct as stated above.
Question 16 |
When performing a physical examination on an infant, nurse Mariner notes abnormally low-set ears. This finding is associated with:
A | otogenous tetanus. |
B | tracheoesophageal fistula. |
C | congenital heart defects. |
D | renal anomalies. |
Question 16 Explanation:
Normally, the top of the ear aligns with an imaginary line drawn across the inner and outer canthus of the eye. Ears set below this line are associated with renal anomalies or mental retardation. Low-set ears don't accompany otogenous tetanus, tracheoesophageal fistula, or congenital heart defects.
Question 17 |
Craniocerebral injury in a child differs substantially from craniocerebral trauma in an adult. The nurse is aware that the following identifies a negative difference between children and adults that could produce a life-threatening complication for a child?
A | Cerebral tissues in children are softer, thinner, and more flexible. |
B | A child's skull can expand more than an adult's can. |
C | Greater portions of a child's blood volume flows to the head. |
D | Hematomas in children can include subdural, epidural, and intracerebral. |
Question 17 Explanation:
If hemorrhage is associated with a head injury and it goes undetected, a child may experience hypovolemic shock because a large portion of a child's blood volume goes to the head. In children, cerebral tissues are softer, thinner, and more flexible — conditions that permit diffusion of the impact. Because a child's skull can expand more than an adult's can, a greater amount of posttraumatic edema can occur without evidence of neurologic deficits. Subdural, epidural, and intracerebral hematomas are the different types of head injury that can occur in children and adults.
Question 18 |
Marco, an 8-month-old infant is admitted with a febrile seizure. The infant weighs 17 lb (7.7 kg). The physician orders ceftriaxone (Rocephin), 270 mg I.M. every 12 hours. (The safe dosage range is 50 to 75 mg/kg daily.) The pharmacy sends a vial containing 500 mg, to which the nurse adds 2 ml of preservative-free normal saline solution. The nurse should administer how many milliliters?
A | None because this isn't a safe dose |
B | 0.08 ml |
C | 1.08 ml |
D | 1.8 ml |
Question 18 Explanation:
Because the infant weighs 17 lb (7.7 kg), the safe dosage range is 385 to 578 mg daily. The ordered dose, 540 mg daily, is safe. To calculate the amount to administer, the nurse may use the following fraction method:
500 mg/2 ml = 270 mg/X ml
500X = 270 × 2
500X = 540
X = 540/500
X = 1.08 ml
Question 19 |
When assessing a female client who is suspected of having primary syphilis, nurse Ronald should expect the client to exhibit the early sign for:
A | Flat wart like plaques around he vagina and anus |
B | An indurated painless nodule on the vulva that begins to drain. |
C | Glistening patches in the mouth covered with a yellow exudate |
D | A maculopapular on the palms of the hands and soles of feet. |
Question 19 Explanation:
This is a description of a chancre, which is the initial sign of syphilis.
Question 20 |
Mrs. Reyes is scheduled for a vaginal hysterectomy. She asks the nurse about the changes she should expect after surgery. Nurse Krina should explain that she will:
A | No longer ovulate |
B | Undergo a physiologic menopause eventually. |
C | Experience an immediate “surgical menopause” |
D | Have some discomfort during sexual intercourse. |
Question 20 Explanation:
As the term “hysterectomy” implies, only the uterus is removed, therefore, the client will eventually have a physiologic menopause.
Question 21 |
To obtain the most accurate measurement of an infant's height (length), nurse Mary should measure which of the following?
A | Recumbent height with the infant lying on the side |
B | Recumbent height with the infant supine |
C | Recumbent height with the infant prone |
D | Standing height with the infant held upright |
Question 21 Explanation:
For the most accurate measurement, the nurse should place the infant in a supine position and then measure recumbent height. Measuring recumbent height with the infant lying on the side would yield an inaccurate result. Measuring recumbent height with the infant prone would yield an inaccurately long result because it includes the length of the foot. Measuring standing height with the infant held upright would yield an inaccurate result until the child no longer needs assistance to stand up straight.
Question 22 |
Nikki, a 10-month-old child with recurrent otitis media (middle ear inflammation) is brought to the clinic for evaluation. To help determine the cause of the child's condition, the nurse should ask the parents:
A | "Does water ever get into the baby's ears during shampooing?" |
B | "Do you give the baby a bottle to take to bed?" |
C | "Have you noticed a lot of wax in the baby's ears?" |
D | "Can the baby combine two words when speaking?" |
Question 22 Explanation:
In a young child, the eustachian tube is relatively short, wide, and horizontal, promoting drainage of secretions from the nasopharynx into the middle ear. If the child takes a bottle to bed and drinks while lying down, fluids may pool in the pharyngeal cavity, increasing the risk of otitis media. Cerumen in the external ear canal doesn't promote the development of otitis media. However, during shampooing, water may become trapped in the external ear canal by large amounts of cerumen, possibly causing otitis externa (external ear inflammation). Persistent fluid in the middle ear may impair language development and hearing; however, a 10-month-old child isn't expected to combine two words when speaking.
Question 23 |
A child with leukemia has just completed a course of methotrexate therapy. How soon should the nurse John expect to see signs of bone marrow depression in this client?
A | Within hours |
B | Within 2 weeks |
C | Within 1 month |
D | After induction therapy is completed |
Question 23 Explanation:
Bone marrow depression is most likely to occur 10 days after methotrexate is administered.
Question 24 |
Kristine, a 10-year-old girl visits the clinic for a check-up before entering school. The child's mother questions the nurse about what to expect of her daughter's growth and development at this stage. Which response is most appropriate?
A | "Her physical development will be rapid at this stage and rapid development will continue from now on." |
B | "She'll become more independent and won't require parental supervision." |
C | "Don't anticipate any changes at this stage in her growth and development." |
D | "Friends will be very important to her, and she'll develop an interest in the opposite sex." |
Question 24 Explanation:
Friends become very important at this age. Children usually begin having an interest in the opposite sex around this age, although they aren't always willing to admit it. Her physical development towards maturity continues, but it isn't as rapid at this stage as in previous years. Although independence increases at this stage, children continue to need parental supervision. Growth and development slow down but gradual changes continue to occur.
Question 25 |
Dr. Rodriguez orders an antibiotic for a child, age 6, who has an upper respiratory infection. To avoid tooth discoloration, the nurse expects the physician to avoid prescribing which drug?
A | penicillin |
B | erythromycin |
C | tetracycline |
D | amoxicillin |
Question 25 Explanation:
Tetracycline should be avoided in children under age 8 because it may cause enamel hypoplasia and permanent yellowish gray to brownish tooth discoloration. Penicillin, erythromycin, and amoxicillin don't discolor the teeth.
Question 26 |
Tanya who had a child with Tay-Sachs disease is pregnant and is have an amniocentesis performed to determine if the fetus has the disease. The nurse counsels her to plan the procedure at the optimal time of:
A | 6 to 8 weeks’ gestation |
B | 14 to 16 weeks’ gestation |
C | 18 to 20 weeks’ gestation |
D | 22 to 24 weeks’ gestation |
Question 26 Explanation:
An amiocentesis is done at this time because a therapeutic abortion can be legally and safety performed if desired by the parents.
Question 27 |
After surgery for repair of a myelomeningocele, nurse Patty should observe the baby for one of the first indications of impending hydrocephalus, which would be:
A | Frequent crying |
B | Bulging fontanels |
C | Change in vital signs |
D | Difficulty with feeding |
Question 27 Explanation:
After closure, spinal fluid may accumulate and back up into the brain, increasing intracranial pressure and causing the fontanels to bulge.
Question 28 |
Mrs. Cruz informed the nurse in-charge that her 12 year old girl has been afflicted with cerebrospinal fever 2 years ago. The nurse understand that the mother is referring to what condition:
A | Meningococcemia |
B | Encephalitis |
C | Epilepsy |
D | Hepatitis |
Question 28 Explanation:
Meningococcemia is also called meningococcal meningitis or cerebrospinal fever.
Question 29 |
Juday is receiving an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate. Nurse Ron should have its antidote readily available. The nurse knows that the antidote for magnesium sulfate is:
A | Protamine sulfate |
B | Calcium gluconate |
C | Sodium bicarbonate |
D | Naloxone hydrochloride |
Question 29 Explanation:
Calcium gluconate will reverse the central nervous system depressant action of magnesium sulfate.
Question 30 |
Norma, the mother of newborn with exstrophy of the bladder tells the nurse that the doctor said her child may develop an unusual gait when learning to walk. Nurse Maureen explains that these children may develop a waddling gait because of:
A | Genu varum |
B | Tibial torsion |
C | Subluxation of the femur |
D | Separation of the pubic bones |
Question 30 Explanation:
The lack of completion of fatal bladder development may interfere with the development of the pelvis.
Question 31 |
Russel, a toddler is receiving an infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a Broviac catheter. As the child plays, the I.V. tubing becomes disconnected from the catheter. What should the nurse do first?
A | Turn off the infusion pump. |
B | Position the child on the side. |
C | Clamp the catheter. |
D | Flush the catheter with heparin. |
Question 31 Explanation:
First, the nurse must clamp the catheter to prevent air entry, which could lead to air embolism. If an air embolism occurs, the nurse should position the child on the side after clamping the catheter. The nurse may turn off the infusion pump after ensuring the child's safety. If blood has backed up in the catheter, the nurse may need to flush the catheter with heparin; however, this isn't the initial priority.
Question 32 |
Nurse Antoinette assesses a newborn and observes central cyanosis. Central cyanosis is indicative of congenital heart defects that affect cardiac circulation by:
A | Shunting blood right to left |
B | Shunting blood left to right |
C | Obstructing flow of blood from the left side of the heart. |
D | Preventing shunting of blood between left and right sides of the heart. |
Question 32 Explanation:
Right to left shunts result in inadequate perfusion of blood, not enough blood flows to the lungs for oxygenation.
Question 33 |
A hospitalized infant, age 10 months, begins to choke while eating and quickly becomes unconscious. A foreign object isn't visible in the infant's airway, but respirations are absent and the pulse is 50 beats/minute and thready. Nurse May attempts rescue breathing, but the ventilations are unsuccessful. What should the nurse do next?
A | Deliver four back blows. |
B | Deliver four chest thrusts. |
C | Perform chest compressions. |
D | Deliver four abdominal thrusts. |
Question 33 Explanation:
If rescue breathing is unsuccessful in a child under age 1, the nurse should deliver four back blows, followed by four chest thrusts, to try to expel the object from the obstructed airway. The nurse shouldn't perform chest compressions because the infant has a pulse and because chest compressions are ineffective without a patent airway for ventilation. The nurse shouldn't use abdominal thrusts for a child under age 1 because they can injure the abdominal organs.
Question 34 |
A couple is concerned about the risks associated with an in vitro fertilization embryo transfer (IVF-ET). Nurse Kris response would be:
A | Embryonic HIV |
B | Ectopic pregnancy |
C | Congenital anomalies |
D | Hyperemesis gravidarum |
Question 34 Explanation:
There is an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy with IVF-ET.
Question 35 |
Jenny’s laboratory results indicate the presence of cocaine and alcohol. The characteristic in her newborn that would indicate to the nurse that the baby has been affected by fetal alcohol syndrome would be:
A | Cleft lip |
B | Polydactyly |
C | Umbilical hernia |
D | Small upturned nose |
Question 35 Explanation:
The abnormal facies associated with fetal alcohol syndrome includes a small, upturned nose, which is distinctive in these infants.
Question 36 |
When discharging baby James a 5-month-old infant from the hospital, the nurse checks to see whether the parent's car restraint system for the infant is appropriate. Which of the following restraint systems would be safest?
A | A front-facing convertible car seat in the middle of the backseat |
B | A rear-facing infant safety seat in the front passenger seat |
C | A rear-facing infant safety seat in the middle of the backseat |
D | A front-facing convertible car seat in the backseat next to the window |
Question 36 Explanation:
Infants from birth to 20 lb (9.1 kg) and under age 1 must be in a rear-facing infant or convertible seat in the backseat, preferably in the middle. Infants and small children should never be placed in the front seat because of the risk of injuries from a breaking front windshield and an expanding airbag. The position next to the window isn't preferred.
Question 37 |
When performing a routine physical assessment on a client who is beyond her childbearing years, nurse Bea identifies that the client has enlarged breasts with galactorrhea. The nurse would expect the physician to order a test for:
A | Estrogen levels |
B | Prolactin levels |
C | Oxytocin levels |
D | Progesterone levels |
Question 37 Explanation:
Prolactine is a hormone that is produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary; a pituitary tumor is the most probable cause of elevated prolactin levels the result in lactation not associated with childbirth.
Question 38 |
A client at 43 weeks’ gestation has just delivered a typical postmature baby. Nurse Jannah would come to this conclusion because the newborn has:
A | Few creases on the soles of the feet |
B | Vernix covering the back and buttocks |
C | Dry peeling skin over the hands and feet |
D | A red, puffy appearance of the face and neck |
Question 38 Explanation:
Dry peeling skin is related to decreased vernix and prolonged immersion in amniotic fluid.
Question 39 |
This parasitic disease that has similar manifestations as pulmonary tuberculosis is:
A | Capillariasis |
B | Filariasis |
C | Ascariasis |
D | Paragonimiasis |
Question 39 Explanation:
The Department of Health (DOH) just recently uncovered a parasitic disease affecting lungs of people who are fond of eating raw or insufficiently cooked crabs or crustaceans in many parts of the country called Paragonimiasis, it has similar manifestations as pulmonary tuberculosis that frequently it is misdiagnosed as such.
Question 40 |
It is the goal of the DOH to declare the country rabies free by:
A | 2010 |
B | 2015 |
C | 2020 |
D | 2025 |
Question 40 Explanation:
The battlecry of the rabies control program of the DOH is “SUMUNOD SA BATAS RABIES”. All agencies involved are gearing up their efforts towards the goal of declaring the Philippines as Rabies Free by the 2020.
Question 41 |
To be effective, Marjorie applies the lindane lotion in the following manner except:
A | It is applied before going to sleep |
B | The lotion is applied from the neck down the entire body. |
C | It should be left for 2-4 hours. |
D | Soap and water is used to wash off the medication from the skin. |
Question 41 Explanation:
The lotion applied to the skin and left for 8-12 hours to be effective.
Question 42 |
Nurse Anne is caring for a toddler in respiratory arrest. The nurse will assist with endotracheal intubation and use an uncuffed tube because the:
A | vocal cords provide a natural seal. |
B | trachea is shorter. |
C | larynx is anterior and cephalad. |
D | cricoid cartilage is the narrowest part of the larynx. |
Question 42 Explanation:
The cricoid cartilage in the toddler is the narrowest part of larynx and provides a natural seal. This keeps the endotracheal tube in place without requiring a cuff. The vocal cords are narrower in an adult. The trachea is shorter and the larynx is anterior and cephalad, but these aren't reasons to choose an uncuffed tube.
Question 43 |
During a well-baby visit, a 2-month-old infant receives diphtheria pertussis tetanus (DPT) vaccine, trivalent oral poliovirus vaccine, and Haemophilus influenzae b (Hib) vaccine. The parents state that the child's older brother has never received the Hib vaccine and ask why the baby must have it. How should the nurse Trich respond?
A | "This vaccine prevents infection by various strains of the influenza virus." |
B | "This vaccine protects against bacterial infections, such as meningitis and bacterial pneumonia." |
C | "This vaccine prevents infection by the hepatitis B virus." |
D | "This vaccine prevents chickenpox." |
Question 43 Explanation:
The Hib vaccine provides protection against serious childhood infections caused by H. influenzae type B virus, such as meningitis and bacterial pneumonia. The influenza virus vaccine provides immunity to various strains of the influenza virus. The Heptavax vaccine prevents infection by the hepatitis B virus. Chickenpox is caused by the varicella virus; a chickenpox vaccine is now available.
Question 44 |
The causative agent of scabies is the:
A | Female itch mite called Sarcoptes scabiei |
B | Male and female itch mite Sarcoptes scabiei |
C | Eggs of arcoptes scabiei the hatch under the skin |
D | The toxins implanted by the itch mite Sarcoptes scabiei. |
Question 44 Explanation:
The causative agent of scabies is the male and female itch mite Sarcoptes scabiei. The female itch mite burrows under the epidermis to lay eggs and the male itch mite resides on the surface of the skin.
Question 45 |
When assessing a child, age 3 months, who has been diagnosed with heart failure, nurse Claire expects which finding?
A | Bounding peripheral pulses |
B | A gallop heart rhythm |
C | Widened pulse pressure |
D | Bradycardia |
Question 45 Explanation:
Heart failure may cause a gallop rhythm in a child. Bounding peripheral pulses, widened pulse pressure, and bradycardia aren't associated with heart failure.
Question 46 |
Nurse Sarah is aware that before the administration of RhIg, she should review the laboratory data of a pregnant client. RhIg is given to pregnant women who are:
A | Rh positive and Coombs’ positive |
B | Rh negative and Coombs’ positive |
C | Rh positive and Coombs’ negative |
D | Rh negative and Coombs’ negative |
Question 46 Explanation:
RhIg is given to prevent active formation of antibodies when an Rh-negative individual is at risk for sensitization; if given to an Rh-positive person, an injection of the RhIg would cause hemolysis of RBC.
Question 47 |
Community-based groups were organized and trained to respond to any situation similar to that of a SARS threat. These groups are called:
A | Disease Outbreak Emergency Response Team (DOERT) |
B | Barangay Health Emergency Response Teams (BHERT) |
C | Barangay Health Watch (BHW) |
D | Community Health Action Group (CHAG) |
Question 47 Explanation:
Community-based groups called Barangay Health Emergency Response Teams (BHERT) were organized and trained to respond to any situation similar to that of a SARS threat.
Question 48 |
When feeding a neonate with a cleft lip, nurse Rose should expect to:
A | administer I.V. fluids. |
B | use a bulb syringe with a rubber tip. |
C | provide thickened formula. |
D | perform gastric gavage. |
Question 48 Explanation:
A bulb syringe with a rubber tip is a safe, effective feeding device for a neonate with a cleft lip. I.V. fluids are required only during the immediate postoperative period, until the neonate can tolerate oral fluids. Thickened formula and gastric gavage rarely are necessary for a neonate with a cleft lip.
Question 49 |
As an RHU nurse, you are aware that the duration of the treatment for patient classified under category 1 with tuberculosis meningitis or spinal disease with :
A | 9 months |
B | 7 months |
C | 8 months |
D | 4 months |
Question 49 Explanation:
The maintenance phase of Category I is extended from 4 months to 7 months in patients with this type TB or complication.
Question 50 |
A healthy, 6-month-old infant is brought to the well-baby clinic for a checkup. When assessing the infant's anterior fontanel the nurse Eve expects it to be:
A | open. |
B | sunken. |
C | closed. |
D | bulging. |
Question 50 Explanation:
The anterior fontanel is open in a healthy, 6-month-old infant. Normally, it closes between ages 9 and 18 months. It should feel flat and firm. A sunken fontanel indicates dehydration. Although coughing or crying may cause temporary bulging, persistent bulging and tenseness of the fontanel signals increased intracranial pressure.
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