Nursing Board Exam Reviewer Part 4 of 5
321. Which of the following skin conditions is caused by staphylococci, streptococci, or multiple bacteria?
a) Impetigo
Impetigo is seen at all ages, but is particularly common among children living under poor hygienic conditions.
b) Scabies
Scabies is caused by the itch mite.
c) Pediculosis capitis
Pediculosis capitis is caused by head lice.
d) Poison ivy
Poison ivy is a contact dermatitis caused by the oleoresin given off by a particular form of ivy.
322. The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that
a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus.
It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.
b) once a patient has had shingles, they will not have it a second time.
It is believed that the varicella zoster virus lies dormant inside nerve cells near the brain and spinal cord and is reactivated with weakened immune systems and cancers.
c) a person who has had chickenpox can contract it again upon exposure to a person with shingles.
A person who has had chickenpox is immune and, therefore, not at risk of infection after exposure to patients with herpes zoster.
d) There are no known medications that affect the course of shingles.
There is some evidence that infection is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within 24 hours of the initial eruption.
323. Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which of the following risk factors?
a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn
Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.
b) African-American heritage
Fair-skinned, blue-eyed, light-haired people of Celtic or Scandinavian origin are at higher risk for development of malignant melanoma.
c) People who tan easily
People who burn and do not tan are at risk for development of malignant melanoma.
d) Elderly individuals residing in the Northeast
Elderly individuals who retire to the southwestern United States appear to have a higher incidence of development of malignant melanoma.
324. When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse
a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy.
During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.
b) ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times.
During autolytic debridement therapy the wound is kept moist.
c) ensures that the wound is kept open to the air for at least six hours per day.
During autolytic debridement therapy the wound is covered with an occlusive dressing.
d) Uses an enzymatic debriding agent such as Pancrease.
Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.
325. Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease?
a) Immune function deterioration
Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.
b) High CD4 count
Cutaneous signs of HIV disease correlate to low CD4 counts.
c) Genetic predisposition
Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.
d) Decrease in normal skin flora
Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.
326. Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by
a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.
b) symptomatic therapies.
Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.
c) low potency topical corticosteroid therapy.
High-potency, not low-potency, topical corticosteroid therapy may be helpful for some skin conditions.
d) improvement of the patient’s nutritional status.
Improvement of the patient’s nutritional status is beneficial for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.
327. Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one part of a patient’s body and used on another part of that same patient’s body?
a) Autograft
Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.
b) Allograft
An allograft is a graft transferred from one human (living or cadaveric) to another human.
c) Homograft
A homograft is a graft transferred from one human (living or cadaveric) to another human.
d) Heterograft
A heterograft is a graft obtained from an animal of a species other than that of the recipient.
328. When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn?
a) Deep partial thickness
A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.
b) Superficial partial thickness
Superficial partial thickness burns are similar to first-degree burns and are associated with sunburns.
c) Full thickness
Full thickness burns are similar to third-degree burns and are associated with direct flame, electric current, and chemical contact.
d) Superficial
Injury from a flash flame is not associated with a burn that is limited to the epidermis.
329. Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines?
a) Never wrap burn victims in ice.
Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.
b) Apply ice directly to a burn area.
Ice must never be applied directly to a burn because it may worsen the tissue damage.
c) Never apply water to a chemical burn.
Chemical burns resulting from contact with a corrosive material are irrigated immediately.
d) Maintain cold dressings on a burn site at all times.
Such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.
330. The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed
a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery.
A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.
b) within 12 hours after surgery.
The first dressing change usually occurs 3-5 days after surgery.
c) within 24 hours after surgery.
The first dressing change usually occurs 3-5 days after surgery.
d) as soon as sanguineous drainage is noted.
Sanguineous drainage on a dressing covering an autograft is an anticipated abnormal observation postoperatively.
