Maternal and Child Health Practice Test Part 2

  1. For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need to take the pill at the same time each day to accomplish which of the following?
    1. Decrease the incidence of nausea
    2. Maintain hormonal levels
    3. Reduce side effects
    4. Prevent drug interactions
  2. When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include as the most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?
    1. Spermicides
    2. Diaphragm
    3. Condoms
    4. Vasectomy
  3. When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for discharge, recommendations for which of the following contraceptive methods would be avoided?
    1. Diaphragm
    2. Female condom
    3. Oral contraceptives
    4. Rhythm method
  4. For which of the following clients would the nurse expect that an intrauterine device would not be recommended?
    1. Woman over age 35
    2. Nulliparous woman
    3. Promiscuous young adult
    4. Postpartum client
  5. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m constipated all the time!” Which of the following should the nurse recommend?
    1. Daily enemas
    2. Laxatives
    3. Increased fiber intake
    4. Decreased fluid intake
  6. Which of the following would the nurse use as the basis for the teaching plan when caring for a pregnant teenager concerned about gaining too much weight during pregnancy?
    1. 10 pounds per trimester
    2. 1 pound per week for 40 weeks
    3. ½ pound per week for 40 weeks
    4. A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds
  7. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on January 20. Using Nagele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following?
    1. September 27
    2. October 21
    3. November 7
    4. December 27
  8. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, “I had a son born at 38 weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks,” the nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the following?
    1. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
    2. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
    3. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
    4. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
  9. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’ gestation, the nurse would use which of the following?
    1. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
    2. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region
    3. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
    4. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus
  10. When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes, which of the following instructions would be the priority?
    1. Dietary intake
    2. Medication
    3. Exercise
    4. Glucose monitoring
  11. A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained 6 pounds in 4 weeks. Which of the following would be the priority when assessing the client?
    1. Glucosuria
    2. Depression
    3. Hand/face edema
    4. Dietary intake
  12. A client 12 weeks’ pregnant come to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical dilation. The nurse would document these findings as which of the following?
    1. Threatened abortion
    2. Imminent abortion
    3. Complete abortion
    4. Missed abortion
  13. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?
    1. Risk for infection
    2. Pain
    3. Knowledge Deficit
    4. Anticipatory Grieving
  14. Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness and position in relation to the umbilicus and midline, which of the following should the nurse do first?
    1. Assess the vital signs
    2. Administer analgesia
    3. Ambulate her in the hall
    4. Assist her to urinate
  15. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore nipples?
    1. Tell her to breast feed more frequently
    2. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
    3. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
    4. Use soap and water to clean the nipples
  16. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4 hours’ postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60; temperature 100.4ºF; pulse 100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
    1. Report the temperature to the physician
    2. Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff
    3. Assess the uterus for firmness and position
    4. Determine the amount of lochia
  17. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the following assessments would warrant notification of the physician?
    1. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client
    2. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum
    3. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after delivery
    4. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
  18. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, with a uterus that is tender when palpated, remains unusually large, and not descending as normally expected. Which of the following should the nurse assess next?
    1. Lochia
    2. Breasts
    3. Incision
    4. Urine
  19. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early postpartum discharge?
    1. Promoting comfort and restoration of health
    2. Exploring the emotional status of the family
    3. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
    4. Teaching about the importance of family planning
  20. Which of the following actions would be least effective in maintaining a neutral thermal environment for the newborn?
    1. Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing
    2. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing
    3. Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing
    4. Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette
  21. A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex response should be further assessed for which of the following?
    1. Talipes equinovarus
    2. Fractured clavicle
    3. Congenital hypothyroidism
    4. Increased intracranial pressure
  22. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which of the following is the priority?
    1. Infection
    2. Hemorrhage
    3. Discomfort
    4. Dehydration
  23. The mother asks the nurse. “What’s wrong with my son’s breasts? Why are they so enlarged?” Whish of the following would be the best response by the nurse?
    1. “The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma experienced with birth”
    2. “A decrease in material hormones present before birth causes enlargement,”
    3. “You should discuss this with your doctor. It could be a malignancy”
    4. “The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby was in the uterus”
  24. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on a male newborn: respirations 78; apical hearth rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostal retractions; and grunting at the end of expiration. Which of the following should the nurse do?
    1. Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention
    2. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
    3. Suction the infant’s mouth and nares
    4. Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity
  25. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?
    1. “Daily soap and water cleansing is best”
    2. ‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”
    3. “An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection”
    4. “He can have a tub bath each day”
  26. A newborn weighing 3000 grams and feeding every 4 hours needs 120 calories/kg of body weight every 24 hours for proper growth and development. How many ounces of 20 cal/oz formula should this newborn receive at each feeding to meet nutritional needs?
    1. 2 ounces
    2. 3 ounces
    3. 4 ounces
    4. 6 ounces
  27. The postterm neonate with meconium-stained amniotic fluid needs care designed to especially monitor for which of the following?
    1. Respiratory problems
    2. Gastrointestinal problems
    3. Integumentary problems
    4. Elimination problems
  28. When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct method of measurement used by the nurse?
    1. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
    2. From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
    3. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
    4. From the fundus to the umbilicus
  29. A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with of BP 160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting edema. Which of the following would be most important to include in the client’s plan of care?
    1. Daily weights
    2. Seizure precautions
    3. Right lateral positioning
    4. Stress reduction
  30. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, “When can we have sexual intercourse again?” Which of the following would be the nurse’s best response?
    1. “Anytime you both want to.”
    2. “As soon as choose a contraceptive method.”
    3. “When the discharge has stopped and the incision is healed.”
    4. “After your 6 weeks examination.”
  31. When preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to a neonate, the nurse would select which of the following sites as appropriate for the injection?
    1. Deltoid muscle
    2. Anterior femoris muscle
    3. Vastus lateralis muscle
    4. Gluteus maximus muscle
  32. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes a red swollen area on the right side of the vaginal orifice. The nurse would document this as enlargement of which of the following?
    1. Clitoris
    2. Parotid gland
    3. Skene’s gland
    4. Bartholin’s gland
  33. To differentiate as a female, the hormonal stimulation of the embryo that must occur involves which of the following?
    1. Increase in maternal estrogen secretion
    2. Decrease in maternal androgen secretion
    3. Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad
    4. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad
  34. A client at 8 weeks’ gestation calls complaining of slight nausea in the morning hours. Which of the following client interventions should the nurse question?
    1. Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in an 8-ounce glass of water
    2. Eating a few low-sodium crackers before getting out of bed
    3. Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning hours
    4. Eating six small meals a day instead of thee large meals
  35. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. The nurse understands that this indicates which of the following?
    1. Palpable contractions on the abdomen
    2. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
    3. Fetal kicking felt by the client
    4. Enlargement and softening of the uterus
  36. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse documents this as which of the following?
    1. Braxton-Hicks sign
    2. Chadwick’s sign
    3. Goodell’s sign
    4. McDonald’s sign
  37. During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale for breathing techniques during preparation for labor based on the understanding that breathing techniques are most important in achieving which of the following?
    1. Eliminate pain and give the expectant parents something to do
    2. Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing uteroplacental perfusion
    3. Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the perception of pain
    4. Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and anesthesia are needed
  38. After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that the contractions of a primigravida client are not strong enough to dilate the cervix. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate doing?
    1. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion
    2. Administering a light sedative to allow the patient to rest for several hour
    3. Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to progress
    4. Increasing the encouragement to the patient when pushing begins
  39. A multigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation is admitted with painless, bright red bleeding and mild contractions every 7 to 10 minutes. Which of the following assessments should be avoided?
    1. Maternal vital sign
    2. Fetal heart rate
    3. Contraction monitoring
    4. Cervical dilation
  40. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most appropriate response to a client who asks why she must have a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta previa?
    1. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”
    2. “You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.”
    3. “The placenta is covering most of your cervix.”
    4. “The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and blocking your baby.”
  41. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with a face presentation?
    1. Completely flexed
    2. Completely extended
    3. Partially extended
    4. Partially flexed
  42. With a fetus in the left-anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate would be most audible in which of the following areas?
    1. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of midline
    2. In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant
    3. In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant
    4. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of midline
  43. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of which of the following?
    1. Lanugo
    2. Hydramnio
    3. Meconium
    4. Vernix
  44. A patient is in labor and has just been told she has a breech presentation. The nurse should be particularly alert for which of the following?
    1. Quickening
    2. Ophthalmia neonatorum
    3. Pica
    4. Prolapsed umbilical cord
  45. When describing dizygotic twins to a couple, on which of the following would the nurse base the explanation?
    1. Two ova fertilized by separate sperm
    2. Sharing of a common placenta
    3. Each ova with the same genotype
    4. Sharing of a common chorion
  46. Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception?
    1. Chromosome
    2. Blastocyst
    3. Zygote
    4. Trophoblast
  47. In the late 1950s, consumers and health care professionals began challenging the routine use of analgesics and anesthetics during childbirth. Which of the following was an outgrowth of this concept?
    1. Labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum (LDRP)
    2. Nurse-midwifery
    3. Clinical nurse specialist
    4. Prepared childbirth
  48. A client has a midpelvic contracture from a previous pelvic injury due to a motor vehicle accident as a teenager. The nurse is aware that this could prevent a fetus from passing through or around which structure during childbirth?
    1. Symphysis pubis
    2. Sacral promontory
    3. Ischial spines
    4. Pubic arch
  49. When teaching a group of adolescents about variations in the length of the menstrual cycle, the nurse understands that the underlying mechanism is due to variations in which of the following phases?
    1. Menstrual phase
    2. Proliferative phase
    3. Secretory phase
    4. Ischemic phase
  50. When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone production, which of the following would the nurse include as being produced by the Leydig cells?
    1. Follicle-stimulating hormone
    2. Testosterone
    3. Leuteinizing hormone
    4. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

Answers and Rationale

Daisy Jane Antipuesto RN MN

Currently a Nursing Local Board Examination Reviewer. Subjects handled are Pediatric, Obstetric and Psychiatric Nursing. Previous work experiences include: Clinical instructor/lecturer, clinical coordinator (Level II), caregiver instructor/lecturer, NC2 examination reviewer and staff/clinic nurse. Areas of specialization: Emergency room, Orthopedic Ward and Delivery Room. Also an IELTS passer.

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