Communicable Diseases Nurse Test

by Daisy Jane Antipuesto RN MN · December 4, 2010

December 2010 Nursing Board Exam Review Questions on Communicable Diseases.

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Communicable Disease

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Question 1

The child presents with high fever and less hemorrhage. The child’s DHF is classified as:

A	Mild
B	Moderate
C	Severe
D	No DHF

Question 1 Explanation:

Mild DHF: slight fever, with or without petechial hemorrhage Moderate DHF: high fever, but less hemorrhage, no shock Severe, frank type: flushing, sudden high fever, severe hemorrhage, followed by sudden drop of temperature, shock and terminating in recovery or death.

Question 2

Nematode parasites Brugia Malayi and Wuchereria Bancrofti causes the communicable disease called:

A	Schistosomiasis
B	Epidemic Parotitis
C	Diphtheria
D	Filariasis

Question 2 Explanation:

A - Schistosomiasis - Schistosoma Mansoni, S. Haematobium, S. Japonicum B - Epidemic Parotitis (MUMPS) – Mumps Virus C - Diphtheria – Corynebacterium diphtheria (Klebs-Loeffler Bacillus) D - Filariasis

Question 3

The mother of an infant with pertussis should be instructed of the following except:

A	Provide abdominal support
B	Feed the child during an attack
C	Allow the child to rest
D	Special attention to diet is needed when the child vomits after cough paroxysms.

Question 3 Explanation:

A child should not be fed during a cough attack to prevent aspiration.

Question 4

Which of the following term refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe, or in other words the relative ability of a microbe to cause disease?

A	Susceptibility
B	Virulence
C	Infection
D	None of the above

Question 4 Explanation:

Virulence is the capacity of the microorganism to cause the disease. It refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe, or in other words the relative ability of a microbe to cause disease when they multiply and grow in number.

Question 5

Clinical manifestations of DHF are divided into 3 stages. Which of the following is least likely observed during the toxic stage?

A	Severe abdominal pain
B	Hematemesis
C	High fever
D	Unstable BP

Question 5 Explanation:

During the toxic or hemorrhagic stage, the temperature is lowered. Other s/s observed are the ff: Vomiting, Frequent GI bleeding (hematemesis/melena), Severe abdominal pain, Unstable BP, Narrowed pulse pressure, Shock.

Question 6

Treatment for filariasis includes the administration of which drug?

A	Metrifonate
B	Oxamniquine
C	Diethylcarbamazine Citrate
D	Praziquantel

Question 6 Explanation:

Diethycarbamazine Citrate (DEC) or Hetrazan is used for the treatment of filariasis.

Question 7

To prevent whooping cough, which of the following vaccines should be given to infants?

A	BCG
B	DPT
C	OPV
D	IPV

Question 7 Explanation:

Routine DPT immunization of all infants which can be started at 1 ½ months of life and given at monthly intervals in 3 consecutive months. This constitutes the primary injection. Booster dose is given at the age of 2 years and again at 4-5 years of age.

Question 8

Direct sputum smear microscopy (DSSM) is the primary diagnostic tool in tuberculosis case finding. Which of the following conditions does a DSSM is contraindicated?

A	Fever
B	Cough
C	Hemoptysis
D	Tonsillitis

Question 8 Explanation:

The only contraindication for sputum collection is hemoptysis; in which case, DSSM will be requested after control of hemoptysis.

Question 9

A client with TB has been treated before with Anti-TB drug, however the treatment failed. The client is under which category of TB patient?

A	Category I
B	Category II
C	Category III
D	Category IV

Question 9 Explanation:

Clients who had treatment with TB but failed to recover, relapse, and return after default is under the Category II of TB patient.

Question 10

Prevention of TB includes the following measures:

A	BCG vaccination newborns
B	Public education about TB and its mode of transmission, methods of control and early diagnosis.
C	Availability and accessibility of medical, laboratory and x-ray facilities for examination.
D	All of these

Question 10 Explanation:

Preventive Measures of TB includes the ff: (1) Prompt diagnosis and treatment (2) BCG vaccination of newborns (3) Public education about TB and its mode of (4) Transmission, methods of control and early diagnosis (5) Availability and accessibility of medical, laboratory and x-ray facilities for examination.

Question 11

Prodromal period is best described as:

A	the gradual recovery of health and strength after illness
B	patient is actually manifesting the signs and symptoms of the disease
C	first exposure to disease
D	premonition of an impending attack of a disease

Question 11 Explanation:

Stage of Illness: Incubation Period – time interval between the first exposure to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms. PRODROMAL PERIOD = premonition of an impending attack of a disease (Ex. Frequent sneezing). Period of Illness – patient is actually manifesting the signs and symptoms of the disease. Convalescence – is the gradual recovery of health and strength after illness.

Question 12

Pertussis is becoming communicable during which stage of illness?

A	Catarrhal stage
B	Paroxysmal stage
C	Convalescence
D	All of these

Question 12 Explanation:

Pertusis is communicable during the Catarrhal stage. - 7 days after the exposure after exposure to 3 weeks after onset of typical paroxysms. STAGES I. Catarrhal Stage – fever, nasal catarrh (rhinitis nasal congestion), cough II. Paroxysmal – 5-10 times rapid successive coughing. (Coughing in one expiration which ends in a whoop or a high-pitched CROW) III. Convalescence Stage (recovery)

Question 13

Treatment regimen for Category I TB patient on the continuation phase includes which Anti-TB drugs?

A	Isoniazid and Rifampicin
B	Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol
C	Etambutol and Streptomycin
D	Pyrazinamide, Etambutol, Isoniazid and Rifampicin

Question 13 Explanation:

Category I TB patient Intensive phase: Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol Continuation Phase: Rifampicin and Isoniazid

Question 14

A child is diagnosed with dengue fever. The etiologic agent for Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever (DHF) is:

A	Chikungunya virus
B	Aedes Aegypti
C	Common household mosquito
D	Infected person

Question 14 Explanation:

The etiologic agents for DHF are the following:Dengue viruses (1,2,3,4) and Chikungunya virus. Vectors/ source of infection: Aedes Aegypti, Common household mosquito, Infected person.

Question 15

The most hazardous period for development of clinical disease is how many months after infection with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis?

A	4-5 months
B	2-3 months
C	6-12 months
D	12-18 months

Question 15 Explanation:

The most hazardous period for the development of clinical disease after the infection with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis is 6-12 months.

Question 16

Based on the National Tuberculosis Control Program patients with TB are recommended to seek hospitalization if they have the following condition:

A	Massive hemoptysis
B	Pleural effusion
C	With complications
D	All of these

Question 16 Explanation:

Patients with TB are recommended for hospitalizations with the following conditions: • Massive hemoptysis • Pleural effusion • Military TB • TB meningitis • TB pneumonia • Those requiring surgical intervention or with complications

Question 17

Preventive measures for malaria least likely include:

A	Plating of Neem trees and other herbal plants.
B	Wearing of clothing that covers the arms and legs at daytime.
C	Using mosquito repellents, mosquito coils.
D	None of these

Question 17 Explanation:

Wearing clothing that covers the legs and arms in the EVENING prevents the occurrence of malaria. The vector’s peak biting is from 9pm to 3am.

Question 18

The time interval between the first exposure to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms is called:

A	Prodromal period
B	Incubation period
C	Stage of illness
D	Convalescence

Question 18 Explanation:

Stage of Illness:  Incubation Period – time interval between the first exposure to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms PRODROMAL PERIOD = premonition of an impending attack of a disease (Ex. Frequent sneezing)  Period of Illness – patient is actually manifesting the signs and symptoms of the disease  Convalescence – is the gradual recovery of health and strength after illness

Question 19

A client with TB who is taking anti-TB drugs who calls the nurse because of urine discoloration. According to the client his urine turned reddish-orange. The nurse told the client that the reddish-orange discoloration of urine is the side effect of which anti-TB drug?

A	Isoniazid
B	Rifampicin
C	Pyrazinamide
D	Ethambutol

Question 19 Explanation:

Rifampicin causes the reddish-orange urine output.

Question 20

The drug of choice for Schistosomiasis that kills all types of microorganisms that can cause this communicable disease is:

A	Metrifonate
B	Oxamniquine
C	Diethylcarbamazine Citrate
D	Praziquantel

Question 20 Explanation:

Schistosomiasis’ etiologic agents can be either of the following: Schistosoma Mansoni, S. Haematobium, S. Japonicum. Praziquantel (Biltricide) is the drug of choice against all species. Alternative drugs are Oxamniquine for S. Mansoni and Metrifonate for S. Haematobium. Diethycarbamazine Citrate (DEC) is for filariasis.

Question 21

Mang Jose is Category III TB patient. He asked the nurse about the duration of his treatment regimen during the intensive phase. Intensive phase in Category III patients lasts for:

A	2 months
B	3 months
C	4 months
D	5 months

Question 21 Explanation:

Category III patients are new smear-negative PTB with minimal parenchymal lesions on CXR. Treatment regimen includes Rifampicin, Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide for 2 months in the intensive phase and Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide in the continuation phase.

Question 22

A person who harbors the microorganism but does not manifest the signs and symptoms of the disease is called:

A	Contact
B	Infected
C	Suspect
D	Carrier

Question 22 Explanation:

Carriers harbor the microorganism but does not manifest the signs and symptoms of the disease. CONTACT = person who has a close association with a person. SUSPECT = person whose medical history reveals that he’s having the disease. INFECTED = person who medical and diagnostic test reveals that he is having the disease.

Question 23

During the fastidial stage of typhoid fever 3 cardinal symptoms are observed to the client. These cardinal symptoms include the following except:

A	Ladder-like fever
B	Rose spot
C	Splenomegaly
D	Hematochezia

Question 23 Explanation:

Prodromal Stage: 1st week (FEVER, Abdominal Pain, Diarrhea, Constipation - sometimes). Fastidial Stage: 2nd week 3 Cardinal symptoms (Ladder-like fever - Stairway fever, Rose Spot, Spleenomegaly). Defervescence Stage: 3rd week (GI Bleeding - melena, hematochezia) (Peritonitis (severe abdominal pain, board-like/rigid abdomen). Lysis or Convalescent: 4th to 5th week.

Question 24

Rumpel Leads Test for DHF is positive when:

A	10-15 petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed
B	No petechiae are present
C	15-20 petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed
D	20 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed

Question 24 Explanation:

Rumpel Leads Test or Torniquet Test is positive when there are 20 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed.

Question 25

Klebs-Loeffler Bacillus is the etiologic agent of which communicable disease?

A	Schistosomiasis
B	Epidemic Parotitis
C	Diphtheria
D	Filariasis

Question 25 Explanation:

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Daisy Jane Antipuesto RN MN

Currently a Nursing Local Board Examination Reviewer. Subjects handled are Pediatric, Obstetric and Psychiatric Nursing. Previous work experiences include: Clinical instructor/lecturer, clinical coordinator (Level II), caregiver instructor/lecturer, NC2 examination reviewer and staff/clinic nurse. Areas of specialization: Emergency room, Orthopedic Ward and Delivery Room. Also an IELTS passer.

Communicable Diseases Nurse Test

Communicable Disease

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