Nursing Test III

November 2, 2009 · 54 Comments

The scope of this Nursing Test III is parallel to the NP3 NLE Coverage:

Medical Surgical Nursing

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Nurse Test III

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Question 1

The postoperative gastrectomy client is scheduled for discharge. The client asks the nurse, “When I will be allowed to eat three meals a day like the rest of my family?”. The appropriate nursing response is:

A	“You will probably have to eat six meals a day for the rest of your life.”
B	“Eating six meals a day can be a bother, can’t it?”
C	“Some clients can tolerate three meals a day by the time they leave the hospital. Maybe it will be a little longer for you.”
D	“ It varies from client to client, but generally in 6-12 months most clients can return to their previous meal patterns”

Question 1 Explanation:

In response to the question of the client, the nurse needs to provide brief, accurate information. Some clients who have had gastrectomies are able to tolerate three meals a day before discharge from the hospital. However, for the majority of clients, it takes 6-12 months before their surgically reduced stomach has stretched enough to accommodate a larger meal.

Question 2

Mrs. Moore, 62-year-old, with diabetes is in the emergency department. She stepped on a sharp sea shells while walking barefoot along the beach. Mrs. Moore did not notice that the object pierced the skin until later that evening. What problem does the client most probably have?

A	Nephropathy
B	Macroangiopathy
C	Carpal tunnel syndrome
D	Peripheral neuropathy

Question 2 Explanation:

Peripheral neuropathy refers to nerve damage of the hands and feet. The client did not notice that the object pierced the skin.

Question 3

A client is rushed to the emergency room due to serious vehicle accident. The nurse is suspecting of head injury. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse report to the physician?

A	CVP of 5mmHa
B	Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
C	Polyuria and dilute urinary output
D	Insomnia

Question 3 Explanation:

These are symptoms of diabetes insipidus. The patient can become hypovolemic and vasopressin may reverse the Polyuria.

Question 4

A client with gangrenous foot has undergone a below-knee amputation. The nurse in the nursing care unit knows that the priority nursing intervention in the immediate post operative care of this client is:

A	Elevate the stump on a pillow for the first 24 hours
B	Encourage use of trapeze
C	Position the client prone periodically
D	Apply a cone-shaped dressing

Question 4 Explanation:

The elevation of the stump on a pillow for the first 24 hours decreases edema and increases venous return.

Question 5

John is diagnosed with Addison’s disease and admitted in the hospital. What would be the appropriate nursing care for John?

A	Reducing physical and emotional stress
B	Providing a low-sodium diet
C	Restricting fluids to 1500ml/day
D	Administering insulin-replacement therapy

Question 5 Explanation:

Because the client’s ability is to react to stress is decreased, maintaining a quiet environment becomes A nursing priority. Dehydration is a common problem in Addison’s disease, so close observation of the client’s hydration level is crucial. To promote optimal hydration and sodium intake, fluid intake is increased, particularly fluid containing electrolytes, such as broths, carbonated beverages, and juices.

Question 6

The nurse is caring for a client who is transferred from the operating room for pneumonectomy. The nurse knows that immediately following pneumonectomy; the client should be in what position?

A	Supine on the unaffected side
B	Low-Fowler’s on the back
C	Semi-Fowler’s on the affected side
D	Semi-Fowler’s on the unaffected side

Question 6 Explanation:

This position allows maximum expansion, ventilation, and perfusion of the remaining lung.

Question 7

The nurse is going to insert a Miller-Abbott tube to the client. Before insertion of the tube, the balloon is tested for patency and capacity and then deflated. Which of the following nursing measure will ease the insertion to the tube?

A	Positioning the client in Semi-Fowler’s position
B	Administering a sedative to reduce anxiety
C	Chilling the tube before insertion
D	Warming the tube before insertion

Question 7 Explanation:

Chilling the tube before insertion assists in relieving some of the nasal discomfort. Water-soluble lubricants along with viscous lidocaine (Xylocaine) may also be used. It is usually only lightly lubricated before insertion.

Question 8

A male client with cirrhosis is complaining of belly pain, itchiness and his breasts are getting larger and also the abdomen. The client is so upset because of the discomfort and asks the nurse why his breast and abdomen are getting larger. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing response?

A	“How much of a difference have you noticed”
B	“It’s part of the swelling your body is experiencing”
C	“It’s probably because you have been less physically active”
D	“Your liver is not destroying estrogen hormones that all men produce”

Question 8 Explanation:

This allows the client to elaborate his concern and provides the nurse a baseline of assessment.

Question 9

A client with a diagnosis of gastric ulcer is complaining of syncope and vertigo. What would be the initial nursing intervention by the nurse?

A	Monitor the client’s vital signs
B	Keep the client on bed rest
C	Keep the patient on bed rest
D	Give a stat dose of Sucralfate (Carafate)

Question 9 Explanation:

The priority is to maintain client’s safety. With syncope and vertigo, the client is at high risk for falling.

Question 10

A client is placed on digoxin, high potassium foods are recommended in the diet of the client. Which of the following foods will the nurse give to the client?

A	Whole grain cereal, orange juice, and apricots
B	Turkey, green bean, and Italian bread
C	Cottage cheese, cooked broccoli, and roast beef
D	Fish, green beans and cherry pie

Question 10 Explanation:

These foods are high in potassium.

Question 11

Before surgery, the physician ordered pentobarbital sodium (Nembutal) for the client to sleep. The night before the scheduled surgery, the nurse gave the pre-medication. One hour later the client is still unable to sleep. The nurse review the client’s chart and note the physician’s prescription with an order to repeat. What should the nurse do next?

A	Rub the client’s back until relaxed
B	Prepare a glass of warm milk
C	Give the second dose of pentobarbital sodium
D	Explore the client’s feelings about surgery

Question 11 Explanation:

Given the data, presurgical anxiety is suspected. The client needs an opportunity to talk about concerns related to surgery before further actions (which may mask the anxiety).

Question 12

A client is admitted and has been diagnosed with bacterial (meningococcal) meningitis. The infection control registered nurse visits the staff nurse caring to the client. What statement made by the nurse reflects an understanding of the management of this client?

A	speech pattern may be altered
B	Respiratory isolation is necessary for 24 hours after antibiotics are started
C	Perform skin culture on the macular popular rash
D	Expect abnormal general muscle contractions

Question 12 Explanation:

After a minimum of 24 hours of IV antibiotics, the client is no longer considered communicable. Evaluation of the nurse’s knowledge is needed for safe care and continuity of care.

Question 13

The physician has given instruction to the nurse that the client can be ambulated on crutches, with no weight bearing on the affected limb. The nurse is aware that the appropriate crutch gait for the nurse to teach the client would be:

A	Tripod gait
B	Two-point gait
C	Four-point gait
D	Three-point gait

Question 13 Explanation:

The three-point gait is appropriate when weight bearing is not allowed on the affected limb. The swing-to and swing-through crutch gaits may also be used when only one leg can be used for weight bearing.

Question 14

A client is diagnosed with detached retina and scheduled for surgery. Preoperative teaching of the nurse to the client includes:

A	No eye pain is expected postoperatively
B	Semi-fowler’s position will be used to reduce pressure in the eye.
C	Eye patches may be used postoperatively
D	Return of normal vision is expected following surgery

Question 14 Explanation:

Use of eye patches may be continued postoperatively, depending on surgeon preference. This is done to achieve >90% success rate of the surgery.

Question 15

After a right lower lobectomy on a 55-year-old client, which action should the nurse initiate when the client is transferred from the post anesthesia care unit?

A	Notify the family to report the client’s condition
B	Immediately administer the narcotic as ordered
C	Keep client on right side supported by pillows
D	Encourage coughing and deep breathing every 2 hours

Question 15 Explanation:

Coughing and deep breathing are essential for re-expansion of the lung.

Question 16

The nurse is assigned to care to a client who undergone thyroidectomy. What nursing intervention is important during the immediate postoperative period following a thyroidectomy?

A	Assess extremities for weakness and flaccidity
B	Support the head and neck during position changes
C	Position the client in high Fowler’s
D	Medicate for restlessness and anxiety

Question 16 Explanation:

Stress on the suture line should be avoided. Prevent flexion or hyperextension of the neck, and provide a small pillow under the head and neck. Neck muscles have been affected during a thyroidectomy, support essential for comfort and incisional support.

Question 17

Ms Jones is brought to the emergency room and is complaining of muscle spasms, numbness, tremors and weakness in the arms and legs. The client was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. The nurse assigned to Ms. Jones is aware that she has to prevent fatigue to the client to alleviate the discomfort. Which of the following teaching is necessary to prevent fatigue?

A	Avoid extremes in temperature
B	Install safety devices in the home
C	Attend support group meetings
D	Avoid physical exercise

Question 17 Explanation:

Extremes in heat and cold will exacerbate symptoms. Heat delays transmission of impulses and increases fatigue.

Question 18

Mr. Whitman is a stroke client and is having difficulty in swallowing. Which is the best nursing intervention is most likely to assist the client?

A	Placing food in the unaffected side of the mouth
B	Increasing fiber in the diet
C	Asking the patient to speak slowly
D	Increasing fluid intake

Question 18 Explanation:

Placing food in the unaffected side of the mouth assists in the swallowing process because the client has sensation on that side and will have more control over the swallowing process.

Question 19

The nurse is planning of care to a client with peptic ulcer disease. To avoid the worsening condition of the client, the nurse should carefully plan the diet of the client. Which of the following will be included in the diet regime of the client?

A	Eating mainly bland food and milk or dairy products
B	Reducing intake of high-fiber foods
C	Eating small, frequent meals and a bedtime snack
D	Eliminating intake of alcohol and coffee

Question 19 Explanation:

These substances stimulate the production of hydrochloric acid, which is detrimental in peptic ulcer disease.

Question 20

The client with acute pancreatitis and fluid volume deficit is transferred from the ward to the ICU. Which of the following will alert the nurse?

A	Decreased pain in the fetal position
B	Urine output of 35mL/hr
C	CVP of 12 mmHg
D	Cardiac output of 5L/min

Question 20 Explanation:

2. C = the normal CVP is 0-8 mmHg. This value reflects hypervolemia. The right ventricular function of this client reflects fluid volume overload, and the physician should be notified.

Question 21

Mr. Stewart is in sickle cell crisis and complaining pain in the joints and difficulty of breathing. On the assessment of the nurse, his temperature is 38.1 ºC. The physician ordered Morphine sulfate via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), and oxygen at 4L/min. A priority nursing diagnosis to Mr. Stewart is risk for infection. A nursing intervention to assist in preventing infection is:

A	Using standard precautions and medical asepsis
B	Enforcing a “no visitors” rule
C	Using moist heat on painful joints
D	Monitoring a vital signs every 2 hour

Question 21 Explanation:

Vigilant implementation of standard precautions and medical asepsis is an effective means of preventing infection.

Question 22

Mr. Park is 32-year-old, a badminton player and has a type 1 diabetes mellitus. After the game, the client complains of becoming diaphoretic and light-headedness. The client asks the nurse how to avoid this reaction. The nurse will recommend to:

A	Allow plenty of time after the insulin injection and before beginning the match
B	Eat a carbohydrate snack before and during the badminton match
C	Drink plenty of fluids before, during, and after bed time
D	Take insulin just before starting the badminton match

Question 22 Explanation:

Exercise enhances glucose uptake, and the client is at risk for an insulin reaction. Snacks with carbohydrates will help.

Question 23

A 18-year-old male client had sustained a head injury from a motorbike accident. It is uncertain whether the client may have minimal but permanent disability. The family is concerned regarding the client’s difficulty accepting the possibility of long term effects. Which nursing diagnosis is best for this situation?

A	Nutrition, less than body requirements
B	Injury, potential for sensory-perceptual alterations
C	Impaired mobility, related to muscle weakness
D	Anticipatory grieving, due to the loss of independence

Question 23 Explanation:

Stem of the question supports this choice by stating that the client has difficulty accepting the potential disability.

Question 24

The physician prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg PO qd to a client and instructed the nurse that the client is on high-potassium diet. High potassium foods are recommended in the diet of a client taking digitalis preparations because a low serum potassium has which of the following effects?

A	Potentiates the action of digoxin
B	Promotes calcium retention
C	Promotes sodium excretion
D	Puts the client at risk for digitalis toxicity

Question 24 Explanation:

Potassium influences the excitability of nerves and muscles. When potassium is low and the client is on digoxin, the risk of digoxin toxicity is increased.

Question 25

A nurse is providing a discharge instruction to the client about the self-catheterization at home. Which of the following instructions would the nurse include?

A	Wash the catheter with soap and water after each use
B	Lubricate the catheter with Vaseline
C	Perform the Valsalva maneuver to promote insertion
D	Replace the catheter with a new one every 24 hour

Question 25 Explanation:

The catheter should be washed with soap and water after withdrawal and placed in a clean container. It can be reused until it is too hard or too soft for insertion. Self-care, prevention of complications, and cost-effectiveness are important in home management.

Question 26

The nurse in the morning shift is making rounds in the ward. The nurse enters the client’s room and found the client in discomfort condition. The client complains of stiffness in the joints. To reduce the early morning stiffness of the joints of the client, the nurse can encourage the client to:

A	Sleep with a hot pad
B	Take to aspirins before arising, and wait 15 minutes before attempting locomotion
C	Take a hot tub bath or shower in the morning
D	Put joints through passive ROM before trying to move them actively

Question 26 Explanation:

A hot tub bath or shower in the morning helps many patients limber up and reduces the symptoms of early morning stiffness. Cold and ice packs are used to a lesser degree, though some clients state that cold decreases localized pain, particularly during acute attacks.

Question 27

A client with AIDS is admitted in the hospital. He is receiving intravenous therapy. While the nurse is assessing the IV site, the client becomes confused and restless and the intravenous catheter becomes disconnected and minimal amount of the client’s blood spills onto the floor. Which action will the nurse take to remove the blood spill?

A	Promptly clean with a 1:10 solution of household bleach and water
B	Promptly clean up the blood spill with full-strength antimicrobial cleaning solution
C	Immediately mop the floor with boiling water
D	Allow the blood to dry before cleaning to decrease the possibility of cross-contamination

Question 27 Explanation:

A 1:10 solution of household bleach and water is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to kill the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

Question 28

The nurse encourages the client to wear compression stockings. What is the rationale behind in using compression stockings?

A	Compression stockings promote venous return
B	Compression stockings divert blood to major vessels
C	Compression stockings decreases workload on the heart
D	Compression stockings improve arterial circulation

Question 28 Explanation:

Compression stockings promote venous return and prevent peripheral pooling.

Question 29

The physician ordered a low-sodium diet to the client. Which of the following food will the nurse avoid to give to the client?

A	Orange juice.
B	Whole milk.
C	Ginger ale.
D	Black coffee.

Question 29 Explanation:

Whole milk should be avoided to include in the client’s diet because it has 120 mg of sodium in 8 0z of milk.

Question 30

A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer. The nurse caring for the client expects the physician to order which diet?

A	NPO
B	Small feedings of bland food
C	A regular diet given frequently in small amounts
D	Frequent feedings of clear liquids

Question 30 Explanation:

Bland feedings should be given in small amounts on a frequent basis to neutralize the hydrochloric acid and to prevent overload.

Question 31

The client is transferred to the nursing care unit from the operating room after a transurethral resection of the prostate. The client is complaining of pain in the abdomen area. The nurse suspects of bladder spasms, which of the following is the best nursing action to minimize the pain felt by the client?

A	Advising the client not to urinate around catheter
B	Intermittent catheter irrigation with saline
C	Giving prescribed narcotics every 4 hour
D	Repositioning catheter to relieve pressure

Question 31 Explanation:

The client needs to be told before surgery that the catheter causes the urge to void. Attempts to void around the catheter cause the bladder muscles to contract and result in painful spasms.

Question 32

Mr. Bean, a 70-year-old client is admitted in the hospital for almost one month. The nurse understands that prolonged immobilization could lead to decubitus ulcers. Which of the following would be the least appropriate nursing intervention in the prevention of decubitus?

A	Giving backrubs with alcohol
B	Use of a bed cradle
C	Frequent assessment of the skin
D	Encouraging a high-protein diet

Question 32 Explanation:

Alcohol is extremely drying and contributes to skin break down. An emollient lotion should be used.

Question 33

A client with AIDS is scheduled for discharge. The client tells the nurse that one of his hobbies at home is gardening. What will be the discharge instruction of the nurse to the client knowing that the client is prone to toxoplasmosis?

A	Wash all vegetables before cooking
B	Wear gloves when gardening
C	Wear a mask when travelling to foreign countries
D	Avoid contact with cats and birds

Question 33 Explanation:

Toxoplasmosis is an opportunistic infection and a parasite of birds and mammals. The oocysts remain infectious in moist soil for about 1 year.

Question 34

A client is scheduled to have an inguinal herniorraphy in the outpatient surgical department. The nurse is providing health teaching about post surgical care to the client. Which of the following statement if made by the client would reflect the need for more teaching?

A	“I should call the physician if I have a cough or cold before surgery”
B	“I will be able to drive soon after surgery”
C	“I will not be able to do any heavy lifting for 3-6 weeks after surgery”
D	“I should support my incision if I have to cough or turn”

Question 34 Explanation:

The client should not drive for 2 weeks after surgery to avoid stress on the incision. This reflects a need for additional teaching.

Question 35

The nurse in the nursing care unit is assigned to care to a client who is Immunocompromised. The client tells the nurse that his chest is painful and the blisters are itchy. What would be the nursing intervention to this client?

A	Call the physician
B	Give a prn pain medication
C	Clarify if the client is on a new medication
D	Use gown and gloves while assessing the lesions

Question 35 Explanation:

The client may have herpes zoster (shingles), a viral infection. The nurse should use standard precautions in assessing the lesions. Immunocompromised clients are at risk for infection.

Question 36

What effective precautions should the nurse use to control the transmission of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

A	Use gloves and handwashing before and after client contact
B	Do nasal cultures on healthcare providers
C	Place the client on total isolation
D	Use mask and gown during care of the MRSA client

Question 36 Explanation:

Contact isolation has been advised by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) to control transmission of MRSA, which includes gloves and handwashing.

Question 37

The nurse is going to replace the Pleur-O-Vac attached to the client with a small, persistent left upper lobe pneumothorax with a Heimlich Flutter Valve. Which of the following is the best rationale for this?

A	Promote air and pleural drainage
B	Prevent kinking of the tube
C	Eliminate the need for a dressing
D	Eliminate the need for a water-seal drainage

Question 37 Explanation:

The Heimlich flutter valve has a one-way valve that allows air and fluid to drain. Underwater seal drainage is not necessary. This can be connected to a drainage bag for the patient’s mobility. The absence of a long drainage tubing and the presence of a one-way valve promote effective therapy

Question 38

Following a needle biopsy of the kidney, which assessment is an indication that the client is bleeding?

A	Slow, irregular pulse
B	Dull, abdominal discomfort
C	Urinary frequency
D	Throbbing headache

Question 38 Explanation:

An accumulation of blood from the kidney into the abdomen would manifest itself with these symptoms.

Question 39

A client with multiple fractures of both lower extremities is admitted for 3 days ago and is on skeletal traction. The client is complaining of having difficulty in bowel movement. Which of the following would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?

A	Administer an enema
B	Perform range-of-motion exercise to all extremities
C	Ensure maximum fluid intake (3000ml/day)
D	Put the client on the bedpan every 2 hours

Question 39 Explanation:

The best early intervention would be to increase fluid intake, because constipation is common when activity is decreased or usual routines have been interrupted.

Question 40

Following nephrectomy, the nurse closely monitors the urinary output of the client. Which assessment finding is an early indicator of fluid retention in the postoperative period?

A	Periorbital edema
B	Increased specific gravity of urine
C	A urinary output of 50mL/hr
D	Daily weight gain of 2 lb or more

Question 40 Explanation:

Daily weights are taken following nephrectomy. Daily increases of 2 lb or more are indicative of fluid retention and should be reported to the physician. Intake and output records may also reflect this imbalance.

Question 41

The nurse on the night shift is making rounds in the nursing care unit. The nurse is about to enter to the client’s room when a ventilator alarm sounds, what is the first action the nurse should do?

A	Assess the lung sounds
B	Suction the client right away
C	Look at the client
D	Turn and position the client

Question 41 Explanation:

A quick look at the client can help identify the type and cause of the ventilator alarm. Disconnection of the tube from the ventilator, bronchospasm, and anxiety are some of the obvious reasons that could trigger an alarm.

Question 42

The nurse is going to assess the bowel sound of the client. For accurate assessment of the bowel sound, the nurse should listen for at least:

A	5 minutes
B	60 seconds
C	30 seconds
D	2 minutes

Question 42 Explanation:

Physical assessment guidelines recommend listening for atleast 2 minutes in each quadrant (and up to 5 minutes, not at least 5 minutes).

Question 43

A client with acute bronchitis is admitted in the hospital. The nurse assigned to the client is making a plan of care regarding expectoration of thick sputum. Which nursing action is most effective?

A	Place the client in a lateral position every 2 hour
B	Splint the patient’s chest with pillows when coughing
C	Use humified oxygen
D	Offer fluids at regular intervals

Question 43 Explanation:

Fluids liquefy secretions and therefore make it easier to expectorate.

Question 44

A 70-year-old client is brought to the emergency department with a caregiver. The client has manifestations of anorexia, wasting of muscles and multiple bruises. What nursing interventions would the nurse implement?

A	Talk to the client about the caregiver and support system
B	Complete a gastrointestinal and neurological assessment
C	Check the lab data for serum albumin, hematocrit and hemoglobin
D	Complete a police report on elder abuse

Question 44 Explanation:

Assessment and more data collection are needed. The client may have gastrointestinal or neurological problems that account for the symptoms. The anorexia could result from medications, poor dentition, or indigestion, the bruises may be attributed to ataxia, frequent falls, vertigo, or medication.

Question 45

A male client visits the clinic for check-up. The client tells the nurse that there is a yellow discharge from his penis. He also experiences a burning sensation when urinating. The nurse is suspecting of gonorrhea. What teaching is necessary for this client?

A	Sex partner of 3 months ago must be treated
B	Women with gonorrhea are symptomatic
C	Use a condom for sexual activity
D	Sex partner needs to be evaluated

Question 45 Explanation:

If infected, the sex partner must be evaluated and treated.

Question 46

What would be the recommended diet the nurse will implement to a client with burns of the head, face, neck and anterior chest?

A	Serve a high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet
B	Encourage full liquid diet
C	Serve a high-fat diet, high-fiber diet
D	Monitor intake to prevent weight gain

Question 46 Explanation:

A positive nitrogen balance is important for meeting metabolic needs, tissue repair, and resistance to infection. Caloric goals may be as high as 5000 calories per day.

Question 47

The nurse is providing a discharge instruction about the prevention of urinary stasis to a client with frequent bladder infection. Which of the following will the nurse include in the instruction?

A	Drink 3-4 quarts of fluid every day
B	Empty the bladder every 2-4 hours while awake
C	Encourage the use of coffee, tea, and colas for their diuretic effect
D	Teach Kegel exercises to control bladder flow

Question 47 Explanation:

Avoiding stasis of urine by emptying the bladder every 2-4 hours will prevent overdistention of the bladder and future urinary tract infections.

Question 48

A nurse is completing an assessment to a client with cirrhosis. Which of the following nursing assessment is important to notify the physician?

A	Expanding ecchymosis
B	Ascites and serum albumin of 3.2 g/dl
C	Slurred speech
D	Hematocrit of 37% and hemoglobin of 12g/dl

Question 48 Explanation:

Clients with cirrhosis have already coagulation due to thrombocytopenia and vitamin K deficiency. This could be a sign of bleeding.

Question 49

Mr. Smith is scheduled for an above-the-knee amputation. After the surgery he was transferred to the nursing care unit. The nurse assigned to him knows that 72 hours after the procedure the client should be positioned properly to prevent contractures. Which of the following is the best position to the client?

A	Side-lying, alternating left and right sides
B	Sitting in a reclining chair twice a day
C	Lying on abdomen several times daily
D	Supine with stump elevated at least 30 degrees

Question 49 Explanation:

At about 48-72 hours, the client must be turned onto the abdomen to prevent flexion contractures.

Question 50

Mrs. Maupin is a professor in a prestigious university for 30 years. After lecture, she experience blurring of vision and tiredness. Mrs. Maupin is brought to the emergency department. On assessment, the nurse notes that the blood pressure of the client is 139/90. Mrs. Maupin has been diagnosed with essential hypertension and placed on medication to control her BP. Which potential nursing diagnosis will be a priority for discharge teaching?

A	Sleep Pattern disturbance
B	Impaired physical mobility
C	Noncompliance
D	Fluid volume excess

Question 50 Explanation:

Noncompliance is a major problem in the management of chronic disease. In hypertension, the client often does not feel ill and thus does not see a need to follow a treatment regimen.

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Comments

54 Responses to “Nursing Test III”

kiko says:

October 4, 2011 at 10:52 am

You have completed Nurse Test III.
You scored 47 out of 50.
Your performance have been rated as 'Excellent'

Reply
- glai says:
  
  November 4, 2011 at 3:52 pm
  
  e di ikaw na nga..paulet ulet?? :D
  
  Reply
kiko says:

October 3, 2011 at 11:01 am

You have completed Nurse Test III.
You scored 50 out of 50.
Your performance have been rated as 'Unbeatable'

Reply
Jaer says:

September 24, 2011 at 6:55 pm

31/50. satisfied as a first timer.wew

Reply
Rhed says:

September 11, 2011 at 12:29 am

You have completed Nurse Test III.
You scored 41 out of 50.
Your performance have been rated as 'Very Good'

-kakatuwa naman!

Reply
hector mp says:

August 17, 2011 at 1:39 pm

You have completed Nurse Test III.
You scored 26 out of 50.
Your performance have been rated as 'Satisfactory'

more reading!

Reply
gilbert says:

April 21, 2011 at 9:48 pm

we need to study

Reply
jill says:

April 8, 2011 at 4:56 am

satisfactory…i still need to study!

Help me God..I'll be lucky this july 2011..

Reply
tian says:

March 16, 2011 at 10:00 pm

27/50 satisfactory kung board exam to failed na ko!

Reply
Admerisk says:

February 25, 2011 at 6:18 am

just passed…really….. need to study more…

it's still not enough…

uuugghhh.. my head is aching just upon answering these questions….

Lord God we need your help..

Reply
claud says:

December 7, 2010 at 6:22 pm

24 lang aken kulang pa ng study

Reply
ahwie says:

October 19, 2010 at 8:19 pm

failed na2man how can i get a higher grade i think i need more study en focus…god pls help me….im so dissapointed….

Reply
co says:

October 5, 2010 at 5:20 am

You scored 37 out of 50.

Your performance have been rated as 'Good'

kailgan pa magbasa at magsasagot ng questions

Reply
zisa says:

October 4, 2010 at 6:29 pm

hayyy always failed…paano na to??…need to study pa guro or kulang lang sa concentration…please help me god

Reply
rockyadah says:

August 18, 2010 at 7:18 am

just passed..aw!! sobrang dali kasi eh..

Reply
- claud says:
  
  December 7, 2010 at 6:23 pm
  
  madli ha bakit de mo na perfect haaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
  
  Reply
neth says:

August 7, 2010 at 7:13 pm

grabe. . mazing. . I like it!

Reply
flowie says:

August 7, 2010 at 5:31 am

palagi na lang ako satisfactory… haaayz hope maka break kahit 30 plus or 40 plus naman… :(

Reply
- EMO says:
  
  September 17, 2010 at 5:47 am
  
  ako din plgi nlng satisfactory..:) sana makaya hindi ako nwawalan ng PAG-ASA!!
  
  Reply
  - claud says:
    
    December 7, 2010 at 6:25 pm
    
    kaya naten too
    
    Reply
- claud says:
  
  December 7, 2010 at 6:24 pm
  
  dnt give up dude
  
  Reply
Angelo Pangan says:

July 2, 2010 at 1:22 am

You scored 34 out of 50.

Your performance have been rated as 'Competent'

Reply
Chekyperz says:

July 1, 2010 at 5:20 pm

I need to study more! not contented on "just passed" :(

Reply
ann says:

June 14, 2010 at 11:00 am

wahhh… competent?!! humm… i think i need to practice a little bit more…more test question pls!!!

Reply
momay says:

June 12, 2010 at 10:09 am

tnx..po sa sample questionnaire..!!Sna mka2long sa Board exam..

Reply
grace says:

June 4, 2010 at 8:21 pm

it can help but more question po sana para mas maenhance pa un test taking strategy..

Reply

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Nursing Test III

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