Home » Nursing Board Exam Reviewer » Medical Surgical Nursing Review Questions

Medical Surgical Nursing Review Questions

Posted by Daisy Jane Antipuesto RN MN on Oct 31, 2010 in Nursing Board Exam Reviewer | 19 comments

December 2010 Nursing Board Exam Practice Test on Medical Surgical Nursing.

Mark the letter of your choice then click on the next button. Your score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz. We will be posting more of this soon. If you want a simulated Nursing Board Exam, get a copy of our Nursing Board Exam Reviewer v1.0 and v2 now.

Medical Surgical Nursing 3

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.

You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.

Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

A hypertensive client has been prescribed with Apresoline. What drug classification does this drug belong?

A	Diuretics
B	Beta blockers
C	Vasodilator
D	Calcium channel blocker

Question 1 Explanation:

Hydralazine (Apresoline) is a vasodilator which causes dilation of the arterioles thereby, decreasing BP. In the pharmacologic interventions for hypertension all this drug types are given.

Question 2

Buerger’s disease or thromboangitis Obliterans commonly affects:

A	Medical professionals
B	Smokers
C	Adolescents
D	A and B

Question 2 Explanation:

Buerger’s disease causes thrombotic and inflammatory occlusions of the small arterioles among smokers.

Question 3

Open wound healing that requires regeneration of much more tissue that at times may require grafting is healing by:

A	Primary intention
B	Dehiscence
C	Tertiary intention
D	Secondary intention

Question 3 Explanation:

A- Primary intention – fills wound with new tissue leaving a thin and flat scar. B- Dehiscence – separation of wound edges. C- Tertiary intention – wounds that are closed later because of infection due to contamination leaving a wide scar and delayed closure D- Secondary intention – healing of open wounds that require regeneration of of much more tissue and at times require grafting.

Question 4

The nurse discusses to the nursing students on duty about colostomy. If sigmoid colostomy is done, what type of feces would the students expect to be expelled?

A	Mushy
B	Fluid
C	Formed
D	Semi-mushy

Question 4 Explanation:

A- For transverse colon colostomy B- For ascending colon colostomy C- As sigmoid colon is near the rectum, you expect the stools to be formed and solid. D- For descending colon colostomy

Question 5

Mr. B is scheduled for chest tube removal. During the tube withdrawal, which is vital to prevent the entrance of air in the tube?

A	Observe patient for signs of distress.
B	Clamp the tubes.
C	Instruct the patient to exhale forcefully with a closed mouth or pinching the nose.
D	Encourage the client to perform arm exercises.

Question 5 Explanation:

The client should perform a valsalva maneuver (forceful exhalation against a close glottis) as the tube is withdrawn by the physician. Therefore, the correct answer is letter C. Never clamp the tubes (B) as this may result to tension pneumothorax.

Question 6

The main goal after a surgery is:

A	Promotion of wound healing
B	Promotion of adequate respiratory function
C	Promotion of adequate cardiac function
D	Promotion of adequate fluid and electrolyte balance

Question 6 Explanation:

Follow the principle of prioritization A-B-C! Airway first, then breathing and circulation. Thus, respiratory first then cardiac function (C) followed by electrolyte balance (D)and wound healing (A).

Question 7

A client was admitted in the ER with profuse bleeding due to a vehicular accident. You expect what type of shock will occur in this client if prompt treatment is not implemented?

A	Cardiogenic
B	Neurogenic
C	Anaphylactic
D	Hypovolemic

Question 7 Explanation:

Hypovolemic shock is caused by a decrease in circulating volume such as bleeding or plasma loss in burns. A cardiogenic shock is caused by a loss of cardiac pumping action (M.I.). Anaphylactic shock is caused by an allergy. Neurogenic shock is most likely caused by a spinal injury or shock

Question 8

During the lecture-discussion in a nursing university, the clinical instructor focused on peripheral vascular disorders. Included in this disorders is a disease causing arterial vasospasm in the fingers when exposed to cold which is called:

A	Aneurysm
B	Raynaud’s disease
C	Buerger’s disease
D	Cold stress

Question 8 Explanation:

A- Aneurysm is the localized, irreversible dilatation of an artery due to changes or damage of the integrity of its wall. B- Raynaud’s disease is an intermittent vasospasm of the arteries when exposed to cold or emotional stress. C- Buerger’s disease is the diffuse inflammation of the tiny arteries followed by the veins manifested by intermittent claudification. D- Cold stress is the neonate’s reaction when exposed to cold by metabolizing brown fats.

Question 9

The following are risk predictors of decubitus ulcers except:

A	Friction
B	Activity
C	Moisture
D	Thrombophlebitis

Question 9 Explanation:

thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of the vein that occurs 7-14 days post operatively if the patient will not promote early ambulation. A,B and C are risk factors of D.Ulcer.

Question 10

Which of the following is done for the management of pain in myocardial infarction?

A	Rest
B	Administering nitroglycerine
C	Administering Mefenamic Acid
D	Administering Demerol

Question 10 Explanation:

For pain management of M.I. a narcotic is given such as Morphine and Demerol. In Angina, rest (A) is promoted and Nitroglycerine (B) is given.

Question 11

A client has a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. You expect to note which manifestations during assessment and work-up:

A	Coughing
B	Ascites
C	Hemoptysis
D	Dyspnea

Question 11 Explanation:

Systemic signs and symptoms will be noted in a client with a right sided heart failure such as distended neck veins, hepatomegaly, ascites (B) and edema. Respiratory-related signs and symptoms are seen in left-sided heart failure (A,C and D).

Question 12

Hysterectomy is the removal of the uterus. It is what type of surgery based on its purpose?

A	Ablative
B	Diagnostic
C	Constructive
D	Exploratory

Question 12 Explanation:

A- Ablative is the removal of a diseased organ. B- Diagnostic is used to confirm a diagnosis. C- Constructive is used to repair defects (cheiloplasty) D- Exploratory surgery estimates the degree of the disease and confirm the diagnosis (Exploratory Laparotomy)

Question 13

At what stage of anesthesia administration does a client is observed to be unconscious?

A	First stage
B	Second stage
C	Third stage
D	Fourth stage

Question 13 Explanation:

A- First stage : client is drowsy B- Second stage: increased autonomic activity noted. C- Third stage : client is unconcious D- Fourth stage : client not be breathing (resuscitation needed)

Question 14

Upon reading the client’s chart, Verapamil (Calan) is also prescribed for the client. This drug is an antihypertive that specifically is classified as:

A	Diuretics
B	Beta blockers
C	Vasodilator
D	Calcium channel blocker

Question 14 Explanation:

Verapamil (Calan) is a Calcium channel blocker that blocks entry of calcium into the smooth muscle thus, lowering BP.

Question 15

Mr. B is on chest tube. A three way bottle system is used. The patient is asking what should be observed on the bottle at the middle (water seal). The nurses best response is:

A	“The bottle at the middle should have an intermittent bubbling.”
B	“The bottle at the middle should have a continuous bubbling.”
C	“No bubbling should be seen on that bottle. Please call me immediately if you observe bubbling in it.”
D	“Just be sure all the bottles are not bubbling.”

Question 15 Explanation:

A water seal bottle should have an intermittent bubbling because it rises during inhalation and falls on exhalation. (B) If continuous bubbling is observed an air leak would be suspected. (C) Blockage or obstruction on the tubes can cause the water seal chamber not to bubble. (D) The suction bottle should be bubbling continuously. Thus, this is incorrect.

Question 16

A nurse is conducting a health teaching on thrombophlebitis. The most effective action to prevent thrombophlebitis after a vein surgery is done is to do which of the following:

A	Elevating the leg when lying or sitting
B	Compression with elastic bandage
C	Allying pressure on the site
D	Early ambulation

Question 16 Explanation:

All the option given are the interventions done after a vein surgery is done. However, the most effective way of thrombophlebitis prevention is mobilization.

Question 17

Cancer surgery is an example of what operation type basing on the time it is required to be performed?

A	Optional surgery
B	Imperative surgery
C	Emergency surgery
D	Elective surgery

Question 17 Explanation:

Cancer surgery should be performed within 24-48 hours, thus it is an imperative/urgent surgery. (A) Optional surgery like liposuction is not needed and at the patient’s preference. (C) Emergency surgery like intestinal obstruction should be done immediately without delay to maintain life. (D) Elective surgery is done at the patience convenience as failure of not having it is not life-threatening such as excision of a superficial cyst.

Question 18

Upon assessment the nurse notes that the client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The client asked what might have caused it. The nurse enumerated the causes of the thrombus formation by saying that a Virchow’s triad are the following except:

A	Venous stasis
B	Homan’s sign
C	Vessel wall injury
D	Too much blood coagulating ability

Question 18 Explanation:

Homan’s sign is a calf pain that is a manifestation of DVT. Virchow’s triad is the one that causes DVT and is seen in A, C and D.

Question 19

A client is diagnosed with a heart failure. The nurse keeps in mind that a special consideration of what laboratory value should be carefully monitored if a patient is on digitalis therapy (Digoxin).

A	Serum Potassium
B	BUN and creatinine
C	Heart Rate
D	Calcium

Question 19 Explanation:

A- Hypokalemia enhances digitalis toxicity. Low serum potassium levels potentiate the effect of Digoxin. B- BUN and creatinine are assessed carefully in renal failure. C- Heart Rate is not a laboratory value therefore it is wrong. If the HR is below 60 bpm, digitalis should not be administered. D- Calcium has no direct effects in digoxin therapy.

Question 20

A potassium sparing diuretic is prescribed to a patient with heart failure. Which of the following drugs is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

A	Furosemide
B	Triamterene
C	Diuril
D	Bumex

Question 20 Explanation:

A- Furosemide is a Loop diuretic B- Triamterene (Dyrenium) is a Potassium sparing diuretic C- Chorithiazide (Diuril) is a thiazide (diuretic) D- Bumex or Bumetamide is a loop diuretic.

Question 21

As the nurse is administering medications to Mr. B, he again inquired about his chest tube. He was asking what possible reason would cause “no bubbling” on the suction bottle. The nurse’s best response is:

A	It is caused by an electrical fluctuation.
B	It is just a normal observation for a suction bottle.
C	It is caused by too much water on the suction bottle.
D	It is caused by the overexpansion of the lungs.

Question 21 Explanation:

A suction bottle should have a continuous bubbling therefore B is wrong. Electrical fluctuation causes an intermittent bubbling on the tube, thus A is incorrect. Having more water on the suction bottle would not affect its function. So, C should be eliminated. No bubbling on the suction bottle is caused by the overexpansion of the lungs (D).

Question 22

Preoperative teaching least likely includes:

A	Deep breathing exercises
B	Extremity exercises
C	Nutritional status
D	Purse-lip breathing

Question 22 Explanation:

This is a pre-op assessment not teaching. A, B and D are pre-op teachings that must be taught to the patient.

Question 23

One of the collaborative management for DVT is an anticoagulant therapy. The antidote for heparin is:

A	Coumadin
B	Vitamin K
C	Protamin sulfate
D	Succimer

Question 23 Explanation:

A- Coumadin is an anticoagulant also used for DVT management B- Vitamin K is the antidote for Coumadin. C- Protamin sulfate – antidote for heparin. D- Succimer – a chelating agent used in the management of lead poisoning

Question 24

A 33 year old male client enters the clinic with complaints of pain at the calf muscle. He said that pain aggravates when he ambulates or walks. You expect this disorder to be an:

A	Arterial disorder
B	Hypertension
C	Venous disorder
D	Raynaud’s disease

Question 24 Explanation:

In arterial disorder the pain is aggravated by walking and exercise thus, A is the best choice. (C) Venous D/O is caused by prolonged standing and management involves elevating the legs.

Question 25

Which of the following hormone increases calcium deposition in the bones?

A	Calcitonin
B	Thyroxine
C	Parathormone
D	Tyrosine

Question 25 Explanation:

Calcitonin is a hypocalcemic hormone as it lowers serum calcium level and increases calcium deposition in bones. The hormone in opposition of this function is the Parathormone that is called a hypercalcemic hormone (C) by increasing serum Ca levels. Thyroxine is a hormone used for cellular metabolism and tyrosins is the precursor of thyroxine.

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 25 questions to complete.

←

List

→

Return

Shaded items are complete.

1	2	3	4	5
6	7	8	9	10
11	12	13	14	15
16	17	18	19	20
21	22	23	24	25
End

Return

19 Comments

gaux / February 5, 2013

8 out of 25.. cool…

Reply
mon / December 12, 2012

Congratulations – you have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.

You scored 22 out of 25.

Your performance has been rated as Good work!

Reply
PEAKER / June 28, 2012

Congratulations – you have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.

You scored 17 out of 25.

Your performance has been rated as Not bad!

Reply
adrian / June 4, 2012

hmp i failed

Reply
epinephrine09 / December 4, 2011

Congratulations – you have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.
You scored 18 out of 25.
Your performance has been rated as Not bad!:$

Reply
mein.capalad / October 24, 2011

You have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.
You scored 24 out of 25.
Your performance have been rated as 'Excellent'

yey!! :)

Reply
DJ-Jamrey / October 11, 2011

You have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.
You scored 23 out of 25.
Your performance have been rated as 'Excellent'

Reply
ayee / September 13, 2011

hayz hope mern sample question nung july 2-3 bord exam..waitng 4 it..thankzzzz….

Reply
juan delfin / June 8, 2011

You scored 24 out of 25.

Reply
kent / May 24, 2011

15/25 Competent

Reply
- kendy / November 12, 2012
  
  =) hi
  
  Reply
kent / April 20, 2011

16/25 "competent"

Reply
Alvin / April 6, 2011

hirap .. hehe :)

Reply
kebs, RN / February 7, 2011

You have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.

You scored 19 out of 25.

Your performance have been rated as 'Good'

Reply
kevs, RN / December 30, 2010

You have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.

You scored 17 out of 25.

Your performance have been rated as 'Competent'

Reply
topeh / December 18, 2010

You have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.

You scored 15 out of 25.

Your performance have been rated as 'Competent'

Reply
iex / November 15, 2010

You have completed Medical Surgical Nursing 3.

You scored 19 out of 25.

Your performance have been rated as 'Good'

to GOD be the Glory….

Reply
isaac / November 5, 2010

You scored 16 out of 25.

Your performance have been rated as 'Competent'

Reply
Mirabella / November 1, 2010

Thanks!!! I passed!!!

Reply