Thursday, July 29, 2010

Nursing Board Exam Reviewer Part 3 of 5

May 2, 2008 by Admin · 34 Comments  · Email This Post Email This Post · Print This Post Print This Post

261. Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells?

a)      Conization
The procedure is also called a cone biopsy.
Colporrhaphy
Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

b)      Cryotherapy
Cryotherapy refers to destruction of tissue by freezing.

c)      Perineorrhaphy
Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

262. Of the following terms, which is used to refer to a type of gestational trophoblastic neoplasm?

a)      Hydatidiform mole
Hydatidiform mole occurs in 1 in 1000 pregnancies.

b)      Dermoid cyst
A dermoid cyst is an ovarian tumor of undefined origin that consists of undifferentiated embryonal cells.

c)      Doderlein’s bacilli
Doderlein’s bacilli is one component of normal vaginal flora.

d)      Bartholin’s cyst
Bartholin’s cyst is a cyst in a paired vestibular gland in the vulva.

263. When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by

a)      trichomonas vaginalis.
Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

b)      candida albicans.
Candidiasis causes a white, cheeselike discharge clinging to the vaginal epithelium.

c)      gardnerella vaginalis.
Gardnerella vaginalis causes a gray-white to yellow-white discharge clinging to the external vulva and vaginal walls.

d)      chlamydia.
Chlamydia causes a profuse purulent discharge.

264. The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)?

a)      In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus.
Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

b)      Transmission of the virus requires sexual contact.
Asexual transmission by contact with wet surfaces or self-transmission (i.e., touching a cold sore and then touching the genital area) can occur.

c)      Transmission occurs only when the carrier has symptoms.
Transmission is possible even when the carrier does not have symptoms.

d)      The virus is very difficult to kill.
Usually, the virus is killed at room temperature by drying.

265. An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a

a)      vesicovaginal fistula.
A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

b)      cystocele.
A cystocele is a downward displacement of the bladder toward the vaginal orifice.

c)      rectocele.
A rectocele is a bulging of the rectum into the vagina.

d)      rectovaginal fistula.
A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.

266. Which of the following statements defines laparoscopic myomectomy—an alternative to hysterectomy for the treatment of excessive bleeding due to fibroids?

a)      Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.
Laparoscopic myomectomy is the removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.

b)      Cauterization and shrinking of fibroids using a laser or electrical needles.
Laparoscopic myolysis is the procedure in which a laser or electrial needles are used to cauterize and shrink the fibroid.

c)      Coagulation of the fibroids using electrical current.
Laparoscopic cryomyolysis is the procedure in which electric current is used to coagulate the fibroids.

d)      Resection of the fibroids using a laser through a hyserscope passed through the cervix.
Hysteroscopic resection of myomas is the procedure in which a laser is used through a hyserscope passed through the cervix; no incision or overnight stay is needed.

267. Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when

a)      the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops.
Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

b)      breast budding begins.
Breast budding is the first sign of puberty in a female.

c)      the areola and nipple form a secondary mound on top of breast tissue.
In stage 4, the nipple and areola form a secondary mound on top of breast tissue.

d)      the breast develops into a single contour
In stage 5, the female demonstrates continued development of a larger breast with a single contour.

268. When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of

a)      Paget’s disease.
Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola.

b)      acute mastitis.
Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.

c)      fibroadenoma.
Fibroadenoma is characterized as the occurrence of a single, nontender mass that is firm, mobile, and not fixed to breast tissue or chest wall.

d)      peau d’orange (edema).
Peau d’orange is associated with the breast and demonstrates an orange peel apearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

269. The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE)

a)      on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1.
BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

b)      with the onset of menstruation
Because most women notice increased tenderness, lumpiness, and fluid retention before their menstrual period, BSE is not recommended with the onset of menses.

c)      on day 2 to day 4, counting the first day of menses as day 1.
Because the tenderness, lumpiness, and fluid retention problems noticed by women in relation to onset of menses generally continue through menses, BSE is not recommended during that time.

d)      any time during the month.
Because most women notice increased tenderness, lumpiness, and fluid retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

270. Which type of biopsy is used for nonpalpable lesions found on mammography?

a)      Stereotactic
Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion and sampling of tissue for pathologic examination.

b)      Excisional
Excisional biopsy is the usual procedure for any palpable breast mass.

c)      Incisional
Incisional biopsy is performed on a palpable mass when tissue sampling alone is required.

d)      Tru-Cut core
Tru-Cut core biopsy is used when a tumor is relatively large and close to the skin surface.

Loading

Related posts:

  1. Nursing Board Exam Reviewer Part 2 of 5 101. In relation to the structure of the larynx, the...
  2. Nursing Board Exam Reviewer Part 5 of 5 401. Which of the following terms is used to describe...
  3. Nursing Board Exam Reviewer Part 4 of 5 301. When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper...
  4. Nursing Board Exam Reviewer Part 1 of 5 1. According to Maslow, which of the following categories of...
  5. Nursing Board Exam Reviewer V2.0 NURSING BOARD EXAM REVIEWER V2.0 E-BOOK is now AVAILABLE...

Advertisements:

Page: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Comments

34 Responses to “Nursing Board Exam Reviewer Part 3 of 5”
  1. damac says:

    no need for rationale here guyz., coz every option discusses the possible answer.,

Speak Your Mind

Tell us what you're thinking...
and oh, if you want a pic to show with your comment, go get a gravatar!